CEE exam date 2083 (MECEE-BL 2027)
MEC names each round after the year its students begin, so the exam held in Kartik 2083 is MECEE-BL 2027. Every paper is from 11:00 to 2:00, at centres inside the Kathmandu Valley; yours is printed on your admit card, on your profile at entrance.mec.gov.np.
| Date | Programs |
|---|---|
| Sat 31 Oct14 Kartik 2083 | MBBS |
| Sun 1 Nov15 Kartik 2083 | BDS |
| Mon 2 Nov16 Kartik 2083 | BSc Nursing, BSc Midwifery, BASLP, B Perfusion Technology |
| Tue 3 Nov17 Kartik 2083 | BAMS, BNS/BMS, BSc MLT, BSc MIT, BSc Radiotherapy, BPT, B Pharm, B Optometry |
| Wed 4 Nov18 Kartik 2083 | BPH |
From MEC's notice of 2083/05/22, as Edusanjal reports it; MEC's own site did not open for us on 25 October 2026. Preparing for next year? See CEE 2084.
CEE exam pattern
- 200 questions in one paper, 3 hours: about 54 seconds a question.
- Single best answer from four options, A to D. No question is longer than 60 words.
- +1 for a right answer, −0.25 for a wrong one, nothing for a blank. Full marks 200.
- Pass: the 50th percentile. Your score must be at least the middle score of everyone who sat that paper; only then are you on the merit list.
- Questions are set 50:30:20 for recall, understanding and application: half test what you remember, a fifth whether you can use it.
- On paper, not a computer: a question booklet and one OMR answer sheet, marked with a black gel pen given at the centre.
CEE marks distribution for every program
MEC sets four papers. Each has 200 questions; what changes is the split.
Paper I · Medicine, dentistry and nursing
MBBS, BDS, BSc Nursing, BSc Midwifery, BASLP, B Perfusion Technology
| Zoology | 40 |
| Botany | 40 |
| Chemistry | 50 |
| Physics | 50 |
| Mental Agility Test | 20 |
Paper II · Ayurveda, pharmacy and allied sciences
BAMS, BSc MLT, BSc MIT, BSc Radiotherapy Technology, BPT, B Pharm, B Optometry
| Zoology | 40 |
| Botany | 40 |
| Chemistry | 40 |
| Physics | 40 |
| Your PCL/diploma subject | 20 |
| Mental Agility Test | 20 |
Paper III · Public health
BPH
| Zoology | 40 |
| Botany | 40 |
| Chemistry | 40 |
| Physics | 40 |
| Health knowledge (basic concepts) | 20 |
| Mental Agility Test | 20 |
Paper IV · Nursing and midwifery science, after PCL nursing
BNS, BMS
| Nursing core subjects | 150 |
| Basic health sciences applied to nursing | 30 |
| Mental Agility Test | 20 |
Paper II's 20 diploma questions come from the PCL course of the program's own subject — pharmacy for B Pharm, lab technology for MLT — because these programs take diploma holders as well as +2 science. The syllabus sets one paper for each group; it does not give +2 candidates a different 20.
CEE syllabus 2083: every unit and its questions
From the third revision of 28 April 2026, which aligned the units with the current Grade 11 and 12 courses and set out what each one covers. Zoology and Botany are the same in papers I, II and III; Chemistry and Physics have fewer questions in papers II and III.
Zoology — 40 questions
| Unit | Questions |
|---|---|
| Evolutionary biologyOrigin of life (Oparin–Haldane, Miller–Urey), the evidences and theories of evolution, human evolution from Ramapithecus | 3 |
| Animal diversity and classificationDiagnostic features and classification from Protozoa to Chordata | 4 |
| Animal tissues and histologyEpithelial, connective, muscular and nervous tissue: structure, location, function | 4 |
| Study of selected animalsPlasmodium and malaria, the earthworm (Pheretima), the frog (Rana) | 6 |
| Human biology and physiologyDigestion, respiration, circulation and blood, excretion, the nervous system, eye and ear, hormones, reproduction and the menstrual cycle | 15 |
| Microbial diseases and immunologyTyphoid, TB, HIV, cholera, influenza, hepatitis, candidiasis; innate and acquired immunity; vaccines | 4 |
| Medical technology and applied biologyTransplants, IVF, amniocentesis, transgenic animals; dairy microbes, sewage and water treatment | 2 |
| Biota, environment and conservationAnimal behaviour, pollution, adaptations, protected areas, Ramsar sites, IUCN categories, endangered species of Nepal | 2 |
Botany — 40 questions
| Unit | Questions |
|---|---|
| Basic components of lifeCarbohydrates, lipids, minerals, proteins and enzymes | 2 |
| BiodiversityClassification systems; bacteria, viruses, fungi, lichens, algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms; four angiosperm families; useful and medicinal plants of Nepal | 9 |
| Ecology and vegetationPond and forest ecosystems, carbon and nitrogen cycles, climate change, forest types of Nepal, succession | 4 |
| Cell biologyCell organelles, the cell cycle, mitosis and meiosis | 5 |
| GeneticsDNA and RNA, Mendel's laws, linkage, sex-linked inheritance, mutation, polyploidy, genetic disorders | 6 |
| Plant anatomyPlant tissues, vascular bundles, monocot and dicot root, stem and leaf | 3 |
| Plant physiologyWater relations, photosynthesis (C₃ and C₄), respiration and the Krebs cycle, growth hormones, germination and dormancy | 6 |
| Developmental botanySporogenesis, pollination, fertilisation, embryo and endosperm | 2 |
| Applied botanyTissue culture, genetic engineering, biofertilisers, plant breeding, food security | 3 |
Chemistry — 50 questions (40 in papers II–III)
| Unit | Paper I | II–III |
|---|---|---|
| Physical chemistryMole concept, atomic structure, periodicity, bonding, states of matter, equilibrium, volumetric analysis, ionic equilibrium and pH, kinetics, electrochemistry, thermodynamics, nuclear chemistry | 17 | 14 |
| Inorganic chemistryNon-metals, metallurgy, alkali and transition metals, complexes, bio-inorganic chemistry | 10 | 7 |
| Organic chemistryGeneral organic chemistry, hydrocarbons, benzene, haloalkanes, alcohols and phenols, ethers, aldehydes and ketones, acids and their derivatives, nitro compounds, amines, Grignard reagent | 17 | 13 |
| Applied chemistryIndustrial processes (Haber, Ostwald, Contact, Solvay), uses of common compounds, polymers, drugs, fertilisers | 3 | 3 |
| Analytical chemistryTests for radicals and functional groups, separation techniques, titrations and indicators | 3 | 3 |
Physics — 50 questions (40 in papers II–III)
| Unit | Paper I | II–III |
|---|---|---|
| MechanicsUnits and vectors, kinematics, Newton's laws, rotation, fluids, circular motion and SHM, gravitation, elasticity | 10 | 8 |
| Heat and thermodynamicsThermometers, expansion, heat capacity and latent heat, the ideal gas, the first and second laws | 7 | 6 |
| Waves and opticsWaves, strings and pipes, sound and the Doppler effect, mirrors and lenses, interference, diffraction, polarisation | 8 | 6 |
| Current electricity and magnetismCircuits and Kirchhoff's laws, meter bridge and potentiometer, AC circuits, magnetic fields, electromagnetic induction | 9 | 7 |
| Electrostatics and capacitorsCoulomb's law, field and potential, Gauss's law, capacitors and dielectrics | 4 | 3 |
| Modern physicsNuclear physics, the electron, the photoelectric effect, Bohr's atom, X-rays, radioactivity, semiconductors and logic gates, particle physics | 12 | 10 |
Mental Agility Test — 20 questions
| Unit | Questions |
|---|---|
| Verbal reasoningDirections, relations, word problems | 5 |
| Numerical reasoningPercentages, ratios, arithmetic | 5 |
| Logical sequencingNumber and letter series | 5 |
| Spatial relation and abstract reasoningNets and solids, figure series — questions printed as pictures | 5 |
The full topic list is on pages 5 to 12 of MEC's syllabus (archived copy).
What changed in 2082 and 2083
- 2082, the second review: negative marking of 0.25 a wrong answer; the pass mark changed from 50% of the marks to the 50th percentile; questions to be set 50:30:20 for recall, understanding and application.
- 2083, the third review (28 April 2026): the Physics, Chemistry and Biology units aligned with the latest Grade 11–12 courses, each with its contents spelled out and its number of questions.
- Anything written before August 2025 describes an exam with no negative marking and a 50% pass mark.
Negative marking: should you guess?
A right answer gains a whole mark and a wrong one loses a quarter, so a guess pays on average whenever its chance of being right is better than 20% — 1 in 5. A blind guess between four options is 1 in 4.
| Options you cannot rule out | Chance it is right | Average marks a guess |
|---|---|---|
| 4 | 1 in 4 | +0.06 |
| 3 | 1 in 3 | +0.17 |
| 2 | 1 in 2 | +0.38 |
Leave 40 questions blank and they score nothing. Guess all 40 blindly and you expect about +2.5: some papers more, some less, and never worse than −10. Rule out one option on each and it is about +6.7. Because the merit list is a rank, those marks move you past other candidates.
An average is not a promise: any one guess either gains 1 or loses 0.25. And the answer sheet cannot be corrected, so decide before you bubble.
How to fill the CEE OMR sheet
MEC's instructions with its sample sheet:
- Mark with the black gel pen given to you at the centre, and only that pen.
- Fill the circle completely.
- Do not alter or erase an answer.
- No stray marks or rough work on the sheet.
- Write your roll number in the boxes and mark each digit's circle below it.
- Fill in the set number printed on your question paper.
Mental Agility Test (MAT): the four kinds of question
Twenty questions in every paper, five of each kind. MEC's syllabus prints one sample of each; these four are ours, written the same way.
Verbal reasoning
Sita walks 5 km south, turns left and walks 3 km, then turns left again and walks 5 km. Where is she now from where she started?
- A.3 km west
- B.3 km east
- C.5 km north
- D.8 km east
Answer
B. 3 km east. Facing south, a left turn faces east: 3 km east. Another left faces north, and 5 km north cancels the 5 km south.
Numerical reasoning
A price rises by 20% and then falls by 20%. Compared with the start, the final price is:
- A.the same
- B.4% less
- C.4% more
- D.2% less
Answer
B. 4% less. 1.20 × 0.80 = 0.96 of the starting price: 4% less. The fall is 20% of a bigger number.
Logical sequencing
What comes next: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, …?
- A.36
- B.40
- C.42
- D.44
Answer
C. 42. The gaps grow by 2 each time — 4, 6, 8, 10 — so the next gap is 12: 30 + 12 = 42.
Spatial relation
The net below is folded into a cube. Which face ends up opposite face 1?
- A.3
- B.4
- C.5
- D.6
Answer
C. 5. In a straight strip of four squares — here 1, 3, 5, 6 — faces two apart end up opposite: 1 and 5, 3 and 6. The two side squares, 2 and 4, face each other.
Who can sit CEE
- Passed +2 Science or its equivalent (A-level included) with Physics, Chemistry and Biology, with 50% aggregate or a GPA of 2.4.
- Or a Proficiency Certificate Level/diploma in health science — General Medicine, Medical Lab Technology, Ophthalmic Science, Dental Science, Pharmacy, Ayurveda, Radiography, Physiotherapy — containing Physics, Chemistry and Biology, with NEB's certificate of equivalence to Grade 12 Science, 50% in both the diploma and the equivalence examination, and registration with the Nepal Health Professional, Pharmacy or Ayurveda Council. Papers II and III accept some diplomas without the equivalence; the syllabus lists them.
- BNS and BMS (paper IV) take only candidates with a PCL/diploma in nursing, 50% aggregate, registered with the Nepal Nursing Council.
Not sure of your GPA? The NEB GPA calculator works it out from your Class 12 grade sheet, and GPA to percentage gives the percentage it stands for.
MBBS, BDS and nursing seats in Nepal
9,273 bachelor-level seats for 2025/26, 2,635 of them MBBS. Last round 18,181 sat the MBBS paper — about 7 for every seat. BDS had about 15 for every seat, BSc Nursing about 6.
| Program | Seats |
|---|---|
| MBBS | 2,635 |
| BSc Nursing | 2,430 |
| BNS | 1,062 |
| B Pharm | 835 |
| BPH | 712 |
| BDS | 625 |
| BSc MLT | 387 |
| BPT | 150 |
| BAMS | 110 |
| BSc MIT | 108 |
| B Optometry | 100 |
| BMS | 65 |
| BSc Midwifery | 30 |
| BASLP | 16 |
| BSc Radiotherapy | 5 |
| B Perfusion Technology | 3 |
| Total | 9,273 |
Seats and candidates from CollegeInfoNepal, which gives the candidates "as per our sources". Candidates can sit more than one program's paper, so the counts overlap. MEC publishes the seats with each round's matching.
CEE result: when and where
Last round the MBBS result came nine days after its exam: the paper on 1 November 2025 (15 Kartik 2082), the result on 10 November 2025, on MEC's entrance portal. Those at or above the 50th percentile go on the merit list, and seats are then given in order of rank through MEC's online priority setting and matching.
Last round's dates from EducateNepal. MEC publishes each program's result and the matching schedule as notices.
Preparing for CEE 2084
Next year's exam, if MEC keeps its calendar, will be around Kartik 2084: the last two were on 1 November 2025 and 31 October 2026. MEC announces the date. The unit weights already say where the marks are.
Nine units carry 107 of the 200 questions
Of the 28 science units, these nine are more than half of paper I:
- 17Physical chemistry · Chemistry
- 17Organic chemistry · Chemistry
- 15Human biology and physiology · Zoology
- 12Modern physics · Physics
- 10Inorganic chemistry · Chemistry
- 10Mechanics · Physics
- 9Biodiversity · Botany
- 9Current electricity and magnetism · Physics
- 8Waves and optics · Physics
A plan from now to the exam
- Until Falgun 2083: go through every unit once from your Grade 11 and 12 textbooks, the heavy ones first in each subject. MEC aligned the syllabus with the current Grade 11–12 courses in 2026, so those books cover it.
- If you sit Grade 12 board exams in 2084, revise for them as CEE revision: Physics, Chemistry and Biology are the same subjects.
- From Asar 2084: one full 200-question paper a week, in 3 hours, on paper with an answer sheet. Score it at −0.25 and write down which units lost the marks; the next week, start there.
- MAT a little every day. Its 20 questions are a tenth of the paper and need no textbook, only practice — the shape questions most of all, with pictures in front of you.
- Watch for the form from Shrawan 2084. This year it opened on 25 Shrawan 2083 and, after an extension for the Bhotekoshi flood, closed at the end of Bhadra.
Common questions
What is the full form of CEE?
Common Entrance Examination. The Medical Education Commission's own name for the bachelor-level one is MECEE-BL: the Medical Education Common Entrance Examination for Bachelor Level programs. One exam decides admission to the medical, dental, nursing, pharmacy and allied bachelor programs it covers.
Why is the 2083 exam called MECEE-BL 2027?
MEC names each round after the year its students begin. The exam held in Kartik 2083 (October–November 2026) is MECEE-BL 2027; the one in Kartik 2082 was MECEE-BL 2026. People search for both names.
How many questions are there in CEE?
200, all multiple choice with four options and one best answer, in 3 hours — about 54 seconds a question. Full marks are 200.
Is there negative marking in CEE?
Yes. Since the 2082 review, 0.25 of a mark is taken off for every wrong answer. A question left blank scores nothing and costs nothing.
What is the pass mark in CEE?
The 50th percentile: your score must be at least as high as the middle score of everyone who sat. Only then are you on the merit list from which seats are given. Until the 2082 review it was 50% of the marks.
What is the CEE marks distribution for MBBS?
Zoology 40, Botany 40, Chemistry 50, Physics 50 and the Mental Agility Test 20. BDS, BSc Nursing, BSc Midwifery, BASLP and B Perfusion Technology sit the same paper.
What is the CEE syllabus for BSc Nursing?
The same as MBBS: paper I, with Zoology 40, Botany 40, Chemistry 50, Physics 50 and MAT 20. BNS and BMS, which take nurses with a PCL diploma, have a paper of their own: 150 nursing questions, 30 on the basic health sciences and 20 MAT.
What is the CEE syllabus for B Pharm?
Paper II, shared with BAMS, BSc MLT, BSc MIT, BSc Radiotherapy, BPT and B Optometry: Zoology 40, Botany 40, Chemistry 40, Physics 40, 20 questions from the program's own PCL/diploma subject, and MAT 20.
Is CEE a computer-based test?
No. It is a printed question booklet and one OMR answer sheet, marked with the black gel pen given at the centre. MEC's instructions say not to alter or erase an answer.
When is the CEE exam 2083?
From 31 October to 4 November 2026 (Kartik 14–18, 2083): MBBS on 31 October, BDS 1 November, nursing, midwifery, BASLP and perfusion 2 November, BAMS, BNS/BMS, pharmacy and the allied programs 3 November, BPH 4 November. Each is 11:00 to 2:00 inside the Kathmandu Valley.
How many MBBS seats are there in Nepal?
2,635 for 2025/26, according to CollegeInfoNepal, of 9,273 bachelor-level seats in all. MEC publishes the seats with each round's matching.
Should I guess in CEE?
On average, yes. A right answer gains 1 and a wrong one loses 0.25, so a guess pays whenever its chance of being right is better than 1 in 5. A blind guess between four options is 1 in 4; ruling out even one option makes it 1 in 3.