Print this on A4 — the booklet, then the answer sheet on the last page. Sit it at a desk for 3 hours with a black pen, filling one circle per question. Afterwards open careerkyt.com/cee/mock-test/, choose Mock 3 and Mark my sheet, and copy your circles across to see your score and every answer explained.
CareerKyt practice paper · not an MEC paper · careerkyt.com/cee/mock-test/
CEE Mock 3 · Paper I · Set A
MBBS, BDS, BSc Nursing, BSc Midwifery, BASLP, B Perfusion · Full marks 200 · Time 3 hours
1. The fossil Archaeopteryx had feathers and wings like a bird, but also teeth in its jaws, clawed fingers and a long bony tail like a reptile. It is therefore regarded as a connecting link between
A. birds and mammals
B. amphibians and reptiles
C. fishes and amphibians
D. reptiles and birds
2. August Weismann cut off the tails of mice for many successive generations, yet every new generation was born with normal tails. This result argued against which idea?
A. Inheritance of acquired characters
B. Natural selection of favourable variations
C. Origin of new species by sudden mutation
D. Spontaneous generation of life from non-living matter
3. Which early human was named the 'handy man' because simple stone tools were found with its fossils?
A. Homo erectus
B. Australopithecus africanus
C. Homo neanderthalensis
D. Homo habilis
4. Stinging cells (cnidoblasts) containing nematocysts, used to paralyse prey and for defence, are a diagnostic feature of
A. Cnidaria
B. Porifera
C. Echinodermata
D. Platyhelminthes
5. The body cavity of a cockroach is called a haemocoel. Which statement best explains why?
A. The body cavity is lined on each side by a dense network of blood capillaries
B. Blood leaves open-ended vessels and bathes the organs directly in the body cavity
C. Haemoglobin dissolved in the cavity fluid carries most of the oxygen to the tissues
D. Blood stays inside closed vessels that run through the body cavity
6. An animal of eastern Australia lays eggs, has a beak-like snout and webbed feet, and is covered in fur; the female feeds her young on milk. In which class should it be placed?
A. Mammalia
B. Aves
C. Reptilia
D. Amphibia
7. A radula, a ribbon-like tongue bearing rows of tiny teeth used to scrape food, is found in members of which phylum?
A. Annelida
B. Arthropoda
C. Nematoda
D. Mollusca
8. Which type of epithelium, whose cells change from rounded to flattened as the organ fills and stretches, lines the urinary bladder?
A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
9. In compact bone, each osteocyte sits in a lacuna surrounded by hard, calcified matrix, yet it stays alive. How does it receive nutrients and oxygen?
A. Through canaliculi linking its lacuna to the Haversian canal
B. By diffusion straight through the calcified matrix
C. From the periosteum alone, through the bone's outer surface
D. From blood that flows through the lacuna itself
10. Tendons, which attach skeletal muscles to bones, are made mainly of
A. a network of yellow elastic fibres
B. hyaline cartilage in a firm matrix
C. loosely woven fibres with much ground substance
D. bundles of parallel white collagen fibres
11. A nerve impulse travels much faster along a myelinated axon than along a non-myelinated axon of the same diameter. Why?
A. Myelin carries the impulse along its own surface like a wire
B. The impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next
C. Myelin feeds the axon extra ATP to drive the sodium–potassium pump
D. The insulating myelin makes the action potential larger in size
12. Soon after a merozoite of Plasmodium enters a red blood cell, a large vacuole forms in it and pushes its nucleus to one side. This early trophozoite is called the
A. amoeboid stage
B. rosette stage
C. cryptozoite stage
D. signet-ring stage
13. In the earthworm, the yellowish chloragogen cells that cover the intestine are often compared with the vertebrate liver. Which functions do they serve?
A. Secreting the cocoon in which the fertilised eggs are laid
B. Storing glycogen and fat, and taking part in excretion
C. Secreting digestive enzymes into the intestine
D. Making the blood corpuscles that carry oxygen
14. The vertebral column of an adult frog consists of
A. seven vertebrae followed by a urostyle
B. ten vertebrae with no urostyle
C. nine vertebrae ending in a coccyx
D. nine vertebrae followed by a urostyle
15. The earthworm Pheretima is hermaphrodite, carrying both testes and ovaries, yet it does not fertilise its own eggs. What is the main reason?
A. Its testes mature before its ovaries (protandry)
B. Its ovaries mature before its testes (protogyny)
C. Its sperm are destroyed in its own spermathecae
D. Its eggs are sealed in a cocoon that sperm cannot enter
16. A frog has no diaphragm and no ribs. How does it force air into its lungs?
A. Its abdominal muscles relax, lowering the pressure around the lungs so air is sucked in
B. It closes its nostrils and raises the floor of the mouth, pushing air into the lungs
C. Its lungs contract and relax rhythmically on their own, drawing air in through the nostrils
D. It swallows air into its stomach, which then passes the air on to the lungs
17. A man treated for vivax malaria with a drug that clears the parasites from his blood falls ill with vivax malaria again months later, though no mosquito has bitten him since. Where did the new attack most likely come from?
A. Gametocytes that had remained in his red blood cells
B. Sporozoites that had lain dormant in his spleen
C. Oocysts that had formed in the wall of his stomach
D. Dormant parasites that had remained in his liver cells
18. Which cells of the gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid?
A. Chief (peptic) cells
B. Goblet (mucous) cells
C. Parietal (oxyntic) cells
D. Paneth cells
19. In a healthy person at rest, which change in the blood most strongly stimulates the respiratory centre to increase the rate and depth of breathing?
A. A slight fall in its oxygen concentration
B. A rise in its glucose concentration
C. A rise in its urea concentration
D. A rise in its CO₂ concentration
20. Blood carrying absorbed glucose and amino acids from the intestine reaches the liver through the
A. hepatic portal vein
B. hepatic artery
C. hepatic vein
D. inferior vena cava
21. Glomerular filtrate contains glucose, salts and urea in much the same concentrations as plasma, but almost no plasma protein. Why?
A. Plasma proteins are reabsorbed as soon as they enter Bowman's capsule
B. Plasma proteins are broken down into amino acids in the glomerulus
C. Plasma proteins are actively pumped back into the blood by the podocytes
D. Plasma proteins are too large to pass through the filtration membrane
22. In an accident, the dorsal roots of several spinal nerves are cut, while their ventral roots stay intact. What would be expected in the part of the body these nerves serve?
A. Paralysis of the muscles, though sensation is still felt
B. Loss of sensation and of voluntary movement alike
C. Loss of sensation, though voluntary movement is still possible
D. No effect, since each root carries sensory and motor fibres
23. In the human middle ear, which structure fits into the oval window, passing vibrations into the fluid of the inner ear?
A. Stapes
B. Malleus
C. Incus
D. Tympanic membrane
24. Addison's disease, with weakness, low blood pressure and darkening of the skin, results from too little secretion by the
A. adrenal medulla
B. thyroid gland
C. posterior pituitary
D. adrenal cortex
25. If an egg is fertilised, the corpus luteum does not break down but goes on secreting progesterone for the first months of pregnancy. What keeps it active?
A. FSH from the anterior pituitary
B. hCG from the chorion of the embryo
C. Oxytocin from the posterior pituitary
D. Prolactin from the anterior pituitary
26. Two test tubes each hold starch solution and saliva at 37 °C. Tube 1 is left as it is; tube 2 has enough hydrochloric acid added to bring it to pH 2. After 15 minutes, iodine turns tube 2 blue-black but leaves tube 1 brownish-yellow. What explains the difference?
A. The acid turned the maltose in tube 2 back into starch
B. In tube 1 the iodine was used up by the saliva, so no colour formed
C. Salivary amylase does not work at so low a pH, so starch remained in tube 2
D. Acid hydrolysed the starch in tube 2 into glucose, which colours iodine blue-black
27. In which respiratory disorder, often caused by long-term smoking, do the walls between alveoli break down, leaving fewer, larger air spaces with less surface for gas exchange?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchitis
28. A doctor records a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. What does the 80 represent?
A. The pressure in the arteries while the ventricles are contracting
B. The pressure in the veins returning blood to the heart
C. The pressure in the arteries while the ventricles are relaxing
D. The pulse rate, in beats per minute
29. When blood pressure in the kidney falls, the enzyme renin is released, starting a chain of events that raises it again. Renin is secreted by the
A. adrenal cortex
B. posterior pituitary
C. juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
D. muscle of the atrial wall
30. The two cerebral hemispheres of the human brain are connected by a broad band of nerve fibres called the
A. pons varolii
B. corpus callosum
C. corpora quadrigemina
D. crura cerebri
31. A student reads her book clearly but cannot read the writing on the board from the back of the classroom. Which eye defect does she have, and which lens corrects it?
A. Myopia; a concave lens
B. Myopia; a convex lens
C. Hypermetropia; a concave lens
D. Hypermetropia; a convex lens
32. During thyroid surgery a patient's parathyroid glands were removed by mistake, and within days her muscles began to twitch and go into spasm (tetany). What caused this?
A. A fall in blood calcium, because parathormone was no longer secreted
B. A rise in blood calcium, because calcitonin was no longer secreted
C. A fall in blood glucose, because insulin secretion rose
D. A rise in metabolic rate, because thyroxine built up in the blood
33. Which type of viral hepatitis spreads mainly through food and water contaminated with faeces?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
34. Why is oral rehydration solution (ORS), rather than an antibiotic alone, the most urgent treatment for a severe case of cholera?
A. Its toxin drains water and salts from the body, and the dehydration kills
B. ORS kills the Vibrio bacteria in the intestine faster than any antibiotic does
C. ORS neutralises the cholera toxin before it can reach the blood
D. ORS works as a vaccine, giving lasting immunity against cholera
35. Colostrum, the first milk a mother produces after giving birth, protects the newborn's gut mainly by supplying which class of antibody?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgD
36. A man takes an HIV antibody test two weeks after a risky exposure, and the result is negative. Why can the test not yet rule out infection?
A. Antibodies against HIV may take several weeks to appear in the blood
B. HIV first infects red blood cells, which the test does not examine
C. Antibodies against HIV are made only after AIDS has developed
D. In its first weeks the virus destroys every B cell that could make antibody
37. Which bacterium is widely sprayed on crops as a biological insecticide, because the protein crystals it makes kill the caterpillars that eat them?
A. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. Rhizobium leguminosarum
C. Azotobacter chroococcum
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
38. A test of a village's piped drinking water finds Escherichia coli. What does this most directly show?
A. The water is hard and must be boiled to remove calcium and magnesium salts
B. The water contains too much chlorine left over from treatment
C. The water is safe, since E. coli is a harmless bacterium of the soil
D. The water is contaminated with faeces and may carry other gut pathogens
39. The movement of a whole organism towards or away from a stimulus coming from one direction, such as Euglena swimming towards light, is called
A. kinesis
B. a reflex action
C. taxis
D. tropism
40. The kangaroo rat of North American deserts can live for long periods without drinking water. Which pair of adaptations mainly makes this possible?
A. It stores water in a fatty hump and drinks heavily whenever it rains
B. It absorbs dew through its thin skin during the cold desert nights and mornings
C. It forms very concentrated urine and uses metabolic water from its food
D. It passes large volumes of dilute urine to wash out excess salts
41. A non-protein organic group bound firmly and permanently to an enzyme's protein part, such as the haem in catalase, is called:
A. A prosthetic group
B. A coenzyme
C. An apoenzyme
D. A metal ion activator
42. An unbranched polypeptide chain of 150 amino acids is built by condensation. How many peptide bonds does it contain, and how many molecules of water were released in making it?
A. 149 and 149
B. 149 and 150
C. 150 and 149
D. 150 and 150
43. In Whittaker's five-kingdom system, fungi were removed from the plant kingdom and given a kingdom of their own mainly because they:
A. Are all single-celled organisms, and have no true nucleus in their cells
B. Reproduce only by asexual spores, and never by any sexual process
C. Have no cell walls, and ingest their food in the way that animals do
D. Absorb ready-made food, and have walls of chitin rather than cellulose
44. Bacteria that make their organic food from CO₂, using energy released by oxidising inorganic substances such as ammonia, hydrogen sulphide or ferrous iron, are called:
A. Photoautotrophs
B. Saprotrophs
C. Chemoautotrophs
D. Symbionts
45. In filamentous cyanobacteria such as Nostoc, the thick-walled, pale cells called heterocysts are the main sites of:
A. Nitrogen fixation
B. Oxygen-releasing photosynthesis
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Storage of food reserves
46. The Deuteromycetes are called 'fungi imperfecti' because:
A. Their hyphae have no cross walls separating the cells
B. No sexual stage is known in their life cycle
C. They cannot produce spores of any kind, even asexual ones
D. They can live only as parasites inside living plants
47. Which pairing of an algal class with the food it stores is correct?
A. Chlorophyceae — starch
B. Phaeophyceae — floridean starch
C. Rhodophyceae — laminarin
D. Chlorophyceae — glycogen
48. Although Dryopteris has true xylem and phloem, it grows mainly in moist, shady places. The main reason is that:
A. Its xylem has no lignin and so cannot carry water any distance up the plant
B. Its spores can be released only when the fronds are covered by water
C. Its sporophyte has no roots and takes in water only through its fronds
D. Its antherozoids must swim through a film of water to reach the eggs
49. A flower has the floral formula % ⚥ K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1, with a superior ovary. To which family does it belong, and what fruit does it usually form?
A. Fabaceae, forming a berry
B. Solanaceae, forming a berry
C. Fabaceae, forming a legume
D. Malvaceae, forming a capsule
50. A flower has six petal-like tepals in two whorls of three, six stamens, and a superior ovary of three fused carpels with three chambers and axile placentation. It most likely belongs to the family:
A. Liliaceae
B. Poaceae
C. Malvaceae
D. Asteraceae
51. The part of ginger (Zingiber officinale) used in Nepal as a spice and a home remedy is:
A. A swollen tuberous root
B. A rhizome, an underground stem
C. A bulb of fleshy leaf bases
D. A corm, a short upright underground stem
52. The chlorine atoms that destroy ozone in the stratosphere come mainly from:
A. Carbon dioxide from burning fuels
B. Sulphur dioxide from factories
C. Methane from flooded paddy fields
D. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
53. On bare rock, the stages of a xerosere usually follow one another in which order?
A. Crustose lichens → foliose lichens → mosses → herbs → shrubs → forest
B. Mosses → crustose lichens → foliose lichens → herbs → shrubs → forest
C. Foliose lichens → crustose lichens → herbs → mosses → shrubs → forest
D. Crustose lichens → herbs → mosses → foliose lichens → shrubs → forest
54. Rooted plants grow in the shallow water at the edge of a deep pond but are absent from its deep bottom (the profundal zone). The main reason is that at that depth:
A. The water is too warm for their seeds to germinate and grow
B. There are no decomposers to release nutrients from dead matter
C. Light is too dim for photosynthesis to exceed respiration
D. Water pressure is too great for the roots to take up any minerals
55. Which of these is an invasive alien plant that now covers many lakes and ponds in Nepal, blocking light and oxygen from the water below?
A. Nelumbo nucifera (lotus)
B. Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth)
C. Shorea robusta (sal)
D. Rhododendron arboreum (lali gurans, the national flower)
56. In a mitochondrion, the stalked F₀–F₁ particles (oxysomes) that make ATP are located on the:
A. Smooth outer membrane
B. Matrix, free in solution
C. Inner membrane, on the cristae
D. Intermembrane space between the membranes
57. Gland cells in a plant that make and secrete oils and waxes would be expected to be especially rich in:
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, studded with ribosomes
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosomes
D. Large central vacuoles
58. Cystoliths, the grape-like crystal masses inside enlarged epidermal cells of the leaf of Ficus (rubber plant), are made of:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Silica (silicon dioxide)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Starch
59. The nucleolus, a dense body inside the nucleus, is the site where:
A. DNA is copied before the cell divides
B. Proteins are sorted and packaged for secretion
C. Ribosomal RNA is made and ribosomes assembled
D. The spindle fibres for cell division are organised
60. A diploid plant cell in G₁ phase contains 12 pg of DNA. How much DNA does one cell hold at metaphase I of meiosis, and how much does each cell formed at the end of meiosis II hold?
A. 24 pg and 6 pg
B. 12 pg and 6 pg
C. 24 pg and 12 pg
D. 12 pg and 3 pg
61. Which kind of RNA carries an anticodon and brings a specific amino acid to the ribosome during translation?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. hnRNA
62. During DNA replication, one new strand is made continuously, but the other is made in short Okazaki fragments. This is because:
A. DNA polymerase can build a new strand only in the 5′ → 3′ direction
B. The two parent strands are unwound by two different helicase enzymes
C. One of the two parent strands is made of RNA rather than DNA
D. DNA ligase is able to work on only one of the two strands
63. A tall pea plant is crossed with a dwarf pea plant, and the offspring are 204 tall and 198 dwarf. The genotype of the tall parent was:
A. TT (homozygous)
B. Either TT or Tt; this cross cannot tell them apart
C. Tt (heterozygous)
D. tt, since half the offspring are dwarf
64. Genes R and S are linked, 20 map units apart. A plant RS/rs (R and S on one chromosome, r and s on its homologue) is test-crossed with rs/rs. What percentage of the offspring is expected to be Rs/rs?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 40%
65. Albinism, in which the skin, hair and eyes lack their normal colour, is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Affected people cannot make:
A. Haemoglobin
B. Clotting factor VIII
C. Keratin
D. Melanin
66. Seedless watermelons are raised from seed made by crossing a tetraploid watermelon with a normal diploid one (2n = 22). How many chromosomes does a body cell of the seedless plant have, and why does it set no viable seed?
A. 22; it is diploid but cannot pollinate itself
B. 33; its three sets cannot pair evenly at meiosis
C. 44; it is tetraploid, and its flowers are all male
D. 66; it is hexaploid, and its pollen is never released
67. In angiosperm phloem, which element is living at maturity but has no nucleus, and conducts food?
A. Companion cell
B. Phloem fibre
C. Phloem parenchyma cell
D. Sieve tube element
68. The Casparian strips of the root endodermis are waterproof bands of suberin in the radial and transverse walls. Their main effect is to:
A. Force water and minerals to cross the endodermal cells' membranes
B. Strengthen the root so that it is not pulled out of the soil
C. Store reserve food for the root through the winter
D. Speed up the flow of water along the cell walls into the xylem vessels
69. A complete ring of bark, down to the wood, is removed from the trunk of a young tree. A few weeks later the bark just above the ring has swollen. The best explanation is that:
A. Water rising in the xylem was blocked, and collected in the bark above the ring
B. Food passing down the phloem, which was removed, built up above the ring
C. The xylem vessels were cut, so their sap leaked sideways into the bark above
D. Transpiration stopped, so the living cells above the ring swelled with water
70. On cool, humid mornings, drops of water appear along the leaf margins of grasses and some herbs. This water is given out through:
A. Stomata
B. Lenticels
C. Hydathodes
D. The cuticle
71. At incipient plasmolysis, when the protoplast is just starting to pull away from the cell wall, which statement about the cell is true?
A. Its turgor pressure equals its osmotic pressure, so its DPD is zero
B. Its turgor pressure is zero, so its DPD equals its osmotic pressure
C. Its wall pressure is at its greatest value
D. Its osmotic pressure has fallen to zero
72. Green and purple sulphur bacteria photosynthesise but give off no oxygen. This is because they:
A. Have no photosynthetic pigment of any kind in their cells
B. Use hydrogen sulphide, not water, as electron donor
C. Do not fix any carbon dioxide
D. Use up the oxygen as fast as they make it
73. In the Calvin cycle of a C₃ plant, how many molecules of ATP and of NADPH are used to make one molecule of glucose from CO₂?
A. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
B. 12 ATP and 18 NADPH
C. 30 ATP and 12 NADPH
D. 6 ATP and 6 NADPH
74. The breakdown of one glucose molecule to two molecules of pyruvic acid in glycolysis gives a net gain, by substrate-level phosphorylation, of:
A. 36 ATP
B. 8 ATP
C. 4 ATP
D. 2 ATP
75. Which plant hormone keeps many seeds and buds dormant, an effect that gibberellins can overcome?
A. Indole-3-acetic acid (auxin)
B. Cytokinin
C. Ethylene
D. Abscisic acid
76. In the embryo of a monocot such as maize, the protective sheath that covers the plumule is the:
A. Coleoptile
B. Coleorhiza
C. Scutellum
D. Suspensor
77. How many meiotic divisions are needed to produce 100 seeds in an angiosperm, if each seed comes from one ovule fertilised by the gametes of one pollen grain?
A. 200
B. 150
C. 125
D. 100
78. Mycorrhizal fungi used as biofertilisers mainly increase a plant's uptake of:
A. Nitrogen gas from the air
B. Phosphorus
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Sodium
79. Farmers growing hybrid maize buy fresh F₁ seed every season instead of sowing grain saved from their own crop. The main reason is that:
A. Hybrid plants form no grain at all, so there is never any seed to save
B. Grain harvested from hybrid plants is always dead and cannot germinate
C. Saved grain gives a segregating F₂, so plants vary and lose much hybrid vigour
D. Hybrid vigour keeps increasing every generation, so the crop grows far too tall
80. A breeder wants completely homozygous, true-breeding lines of a crop as quickly as possible. Which method gives them within a single generation?
A. Raising haploid plants from anthers, then doubling their chromosomes
B. Culturing shoot tips to raise virus-free copies of the existing plant
C. Self-pollinating the plants for six to eight generations in a row
D. Crossing two good varieties and keeping the most vigorous F₁ plants
81. A hydrocarbon contains 80% carbon by mass, and its vapour density is 15. What is its molecular formula? (C = 12, H = 1)
A. CH₃
B. C₂H₄
C. C₂H₆
D. C₃H₈
82. One atomic mass unit (1 u) is defined as
A. One-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom
B. The mass of one hydrogen atom
C. One-sixteenth of the mass of an oxygen-16 atom
D. The mass of one proton
83. Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) can describe an electron in a 3d orbital?
A. 3, 3, −2, +½
B. 3, 1, 0, −½
C. 4, 2, +1, −½
D. 3, 2, −2, +½
84. What is the ground-state electronic configuration of copper (Z = 29)?
A. [Ar] 3d⁹ 4s²
B. [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹
C. [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s²
D. [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s² 4p¹
85. Which halogen releases the most energy when an isolated gaseous atom gains one electron, that is, has the highest electron affinity?
A. Chlorine
B. Fluorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
86. Which of these chlorides has the greatest covalent character?
A. KCl
B. AlCl₃
C. NaCl
D. MgCl₂
87. In acidic solution, MnO₄⁻ is reduced to Mn²⁺ while Fe²⁺ is oxidised to Fe³⁺. How many moles of Fe²⁺ does one mole of MnO₄⁻ oxidise?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
88. Under which conditions does a real gas behave most like an ideal gas?
A. Low temperature and high pressure
B. High temperature and high pressure
C. Low temperature and low pressure
D. High temperature and low pressure
89. How does an amorphous solid such as glass differ from a crystalline solid?
A. It softens over a range of temperature
B. It melts sharply at one fixed temperature
C. Its physical properties differ with direction
D. Its particles are arranged in long-range order
90. 1.0 mol of PCl₅ is heated in a closed 1.0 L vessel and is 50% dissociated at equilibrium: PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g). What is Kc?
A. 0.25 mol L⁻¹
B. 0.50 mol L⁻¹
C. 1.0 mol L⁻¹
D. 2.0 mol L⁻¹
91. Which of these substances is suitable as a primary standard in volumetric analysis?
A. Sodium hydroxide pellets
B. Potassium permanganate crystals
C. Concentrated hydrochloric acid
D. Anhydrous sodium carbonate
92. A buffer contains 0.20 mol L⁻¹ sodium acetate and 0.020 mol L⁻¹ acetic acid. What is its pH? (pKa of acetic acid = 4.74)
A. 3.74
B. 4.74
C. 5.74
D. 6.74
93. Solid sodium acetate is dissolved in a dilute solution of acetic acid. What happens to the acid's degree of ionisation and to the pH of the solution?
A. Ionisation falls and pH falls
B. Ionisation rises and pH rises
C. Ionisation falls and pH rises
D. Ionisation rises and pH falls
94. For a reaction X + Y → products, doubling [X] alone doubles the rate, while doubling [Y] alone makes the rate four times as fast. What is the overall order of the reaction?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
95. Standard electrode potentials: Ag⁺/Ag = +0.80 V and Mg²⁺/Mg = −2.37 V. What is the standard emf of the cell Mg | Mg²⁺ || Ag⁺ | Ag?
A. −3.17 V
B. −1.57 V
C. 3.17 V
D. 3.97 V
96. Using the bond enthalpies H–H = 436, Cl–Cl = 243 and H–Cl = 432 kJ mol⁻¹, what is ΔH for the reaction H₂(g) + Cl₂(g) → 2HCl(g) as written?
A. −185 kJ
B. −92.5 kJ
C. +185 kJ
D. +247 kJ
97. Carbon-14, used in radiocarbon dating, is formed continuously in the upper atmosphere when neutrons from cosmic rays strike nuclei of
A. ¹²C
B. ¹³C
C. ¹⁴N
D. ¹⁶O
98. In some nuclear reactors, heavy water (D₂O) is used mainly to
A. Slow down fast neutrons
B. Provide the fuel for fission
C. Absorb γ radiation from the core
D. Absorb all the neutrons and stop the chain
99. Hydrogen iodide is made by heating sodium iodide with phosphoric acid rather than with concentrated sulphuric acid. Why?
A. Concentrated H₂SO₄ oxidises HI to iodine
B. Phosphoric acid is a stronger acid than H₂SO₄
C. Concentrated H₂SO₄ does not react with iodides
D. HI dissolves in H₂SO₄ and is not released
100. Phosphine is prepared in the laboratory by heating white phosphorus, in an inert atmosphere, with
A. Dilute hydrochloric acid solution
B. Concentrated nitric acid
C. Steam
D. Concentrated NaOH solution
101. Poling, in which the molten metal is stirred with logs of green wood, is used to refine
A. Sodium
B. Aluminium
C. Copper
D. Zinc
102. In the cyanide process, silver is dissolved out of its ore as the complex Na[Ag(CN)₂]. Which metal is then added to the solution to recover the silver?
A. Gold
B. Zinc
C. Mercury
D. Platinum
103. Lithium resembles magnesium more than the other alkali metals: both form nitrides by direct combination, and both have carbonates that decompose on heating. This is an example of
A. Isomorphism
B. A diagonal relationship
C. The inert pair effect
D. The lanthanide contraction
104. Graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not. Which feature of graphite's structure explains this?
A. Each sp² carbon has one delocalised electron
B. Its carbon atoms are joined by ionic bonds that release ions
C. Its layers are joined by strong covalent bonds between sheets
D. It contains metal impurities left over from its formation
105. Which of these hydrated ions is colourless in aqueous solution?
A. Cu²⁺
B. Ni²⁺
C. Zn²⁺
D. Co²⁺
106. What is the crystal field stabilisation energy of a d⁴ ion in a weak-field (high-spin) octahedral complex? Ignore pairing energy.
A. −1.6 Δo
B. −1.2 Δo
C. −0.6 Δo
D. 0
107. For each molecule of ATP it uses, the sodium–potassium pump in a cell membrane moves
A. 2 Na⁺ out and 3 K⁺ in
B. 3 Na⁺ in and 2 K⁺ out
C. 1 Na⁺ out and 1 K⁺ in
D. 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in
108. Ethoxyethane (C₂H₅–O–C₂H₅) and 1-methoxypropane (CH₃–O–CH₂CH₂CH₃) have the same molecular formula but different alkyl groups on either side of the oxygen. They are
A. Optical isomers
B. Geometrical isomers
C. Metamers
D. Functional isomers
109. Which of these compounds is optically active?
A. Propanoic acid
B. 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
C. 3-Hydroxypropanoic acid
D. 2-Methylpropanoic acid
110. What is the hybridisation of the positively charged carbon in a carbocation such as (CH₃)₃C⁺?
A. sp
B. sp²
C. sp³
D. sp³d
111. Catalytic reforming turns straight-chain alkanes in petrol into branched alkanes and aromatic hydrocarbons. Why does this improve the fuel?
A. The products have higher cetane numbers and ignite sooner
B. The products contain more hydrogen for each carbon atom
C. The products have much higher boiling points than before
D. Branched and aromatic fuels knock less
112. An alkene gives only ethanal, CH₃CHO, on ozonolysis followed by treatment with zinc and water. Which alkene is it?
A. But-2-ene
B. Propene
C. But-1-ene
D. 2-Methylpropene
113. Complete combustion of one mole of an alkane uses exactly 8 moles of oxygen gas. Which alkane is it?
A. C₄H₁₀
B. C₅H₁₂
C. C₆H₁₄
D. C₈H₁₈
114. Benzene reacts with chloromethane in the presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride. What is the organic product?
A. Chlorobenzene
B. Benzyl chloride
C. Toluene
D. Cyclohexane
115. 2-Bromopropane is heated with a concentrated solution of potassium hydroxide in ethanol. What is the main organic product?
A. Propan-2-ol
B. Propan-1-ol
C. Propene
D. Propane
116. Benzenediazonium chloride is warmed with copper(I) chloride dissolved in hydrochloric acid. Which compound is formed?
A. Phenol
B. Chlorobenzene
C. Benzyl chloride
D. Benzene
117. 2-Methylpropene is treated with diborane, and the product is oxidised with alkaline hydrogen peroxide. Which alcohol is formed?
A. 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
B. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
C. Butan-1-ol
D. Butan-2-ol
118. Aniline is a much weaker base than methylamine. What is the main reason?
A. Aniline is only slightly soluble in water, so it ionises less
B. The methyl group in methylamine withdraws electrons from N
C. Aniline has a higher molar mass, so it moves less freely
D. Its lone pair is spread into the ring
119. In the cumene process, cumene hydroperoxide is split by dilute acid into phenol and which other useful product?
A. Propanone
B. Ethanal
C. Benzoic acid
D. Propan-2-ol
120. Benzoyl chloride is hydrogenated over palladium on barium sulphate, a catalyst partly poisoned with sulphur or quinoline. What is the product?
A. Benzyl alcohol
B. Benzoic acid
C. Toluene
D. Benzaldehyde
121. Thionyl chloride is often preferred to PCl₅ for converting a carboxylic acid into its acid chloride. Why?
A. It oxidises the acid at the same time, raising the yield
B. Its by-products SO₂ and HCl simply escape
C. It gives the acid chloride without any by-product at all
D. It is unaffected by moisture and can be used in water
122. Bromoethane is heated with silver nitrite. What is the main organic product?
A. Ethyl nitrite
B. Ethanol
C. Nitroethane
D. Ethene
123. A primary amine is warmed with chloroform and alcoholic potassium hydroxide, and a very unpleasant smell is noticed. Which kind of compound has formed?
A. A nitrile
B. An isocyanide
C. A nitro compound
D. A secondary amine
124. A dialkylcadmium, R₂Cd, reacts with an acid chloride, R′COCl. What kind of compound is formed?
A. A ketone
B. A tertiary alcohol
C. An aldehyde
D. An ester
125. In the Solvay (ammonia–soda) process, ammonia is recovered by heating ammonium chloride with slaked lime. Which by-product is left?
A. Sodium chloride
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Calcium chloride
126. Alum is added to muddy water to make the suspended clay settle. How does it work?
A. It kills the bacteria that keep the clay suspended in water
B. Al³⁺ ions cancel the charge on clay particles
C. It dissolves the clay particles so that the water turns clear
D. It makes the water alkaline, and clay sinks in alkaline water
127. Which radioisotope is used to diagnose and treat disorders of the thyroid gland?
A. Iodine-131
B. Cobalt-60
C. Carbon-14
D. Uranium-235
128. A sample turns violet when sodium hydroxide solution and a few drops of dilute copper sulphate solution are added (the biuret test). Which class of biomolecule does this show?
A. Proteins
B. Starch
C. Fats
D. Reducing sugars
129. In an iodometric titration, an oxidising agent sets free iodine from excess potassium iodide. With which solution is the liberated iodine titrated?
A. Potassium permanganate
B. EDTA
C. Silver nitrate
D. Sodium thiosulphate
130. In Lassaigne's test for halogens, the sodium fusion extract is boiled with dilute nitric acid before silver nitrate is added. Why?
A. To oxidise the halide ions into the free halogens first
B. To dissolve the silver halide so that its colour shows
C. To destroy any cyanide and sulphide present
D. To make the extract alkaline enough for precipitation
131. In Newton's law of gravitation, F = Gm₁m₂/r². What are the dimensions of the gravitational constant G?
A. [ML³T⁻²]
B. [M⁻²L³T⁻²]
C. [M⁻¹L²T⁻²]
D. [M⁻¹L³T⁻²]
132. A stone is thrown horizontally at 15 m s⁻¹ from the top of a cliff 45 m high. Ignoring air resistance, how far from the foot of the cliff does it land? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
A. 45 m
B. 67.5 m
C. 90 m
D. 135 m
133. Impulse has the same SI unit as which of these quantities?
A. Force
B. Work
C. Power
D. Momentum
134. The linear momentum of a body of fixed mass is increased by 100%. By what percentage does its kinetic energy increase?
A. 100%
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 400%
135. A skater spinning on smooth ice with her arms outstretched pulls her arms in close to her body. Which statement is correct?
A. Her angular momentum stays the same and her angular speed increases
B. Her angular momentum and her angular speed both increase
C. Her angular speed increases and her rotational kinetic energy stays the same
D. Her moment of inertia increases and her angular speed decreases
136. Water flows steadily through a narrow horizontal tube under a fixed pressure difference. The tube is replaced by one of the same length but half the radius. The volume of water flowing per second becomes
A. half as much
B. one quarter as much
C. one sixteenth as much
D. the same, as the pressure difference is unchanged
137. An electric pump lifts 600 kg of water through a height of 10 m in one minute. What useful power does it deliver? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
A. 100 W
B. 1 kW
C. 10 kW
D. 60 kW
138. A perfectly rigid body would not deform at all, however large the stress on it. Its Young's modulus would be
A. zero
B. equal to the applied stress
C. equal to its breaking stress
D. infinite
139. A system is made to oscillate by a periodic driving force. Its amplitude is largest when the driving frequency equals the system's natural frequency. This effect is called
A. resonance
B. damping
C. beats
D. free oscillation
140. A car rounds a flat, unbanked curve at a steady speed. Which force provides the centripetal force that keeps it on the curve?
A. The weight of the car
B. The normal reaction of the road on the tyres
C. The centrifugal force on the car
D. Friction between tyres and road
141. The triple point of water, at which ice, liquid water and water vapour coexist in equilibrium, is the fixed point on which the Kelvin scale was built. Its temperature is
A. 0 K
B. 273.15 K
C. 273.16 K
D. 373.15 K
142. A glass flask filled with a liquid up to a mark on its neck is placed in hot water. The liquid level first falls slightly and then rises above the mark. Why does it fall at first?
A. The flask heats and expands before the liquid does
B. The liquid contracts slightly before it starts to expand
C. Some of the liquid evaporates from its surface
D. Air dissolved in the liquid is driven out
143. A gas at a constant pressure of 2 × 10⁵ Pa expands from 3 litres to 5 litres. How much work does it do on its surroundings?
A. 400 J
B. 600 J
C. 1000 J
D. 4 × 10⁵ J
144. Which of these is one of the assumptions of the kinetic theory of an ideal gas?
A. Molecules attract each other at all distances
B. Collisions between molecules are inelastic
C. The molecules themselves fill most of the container's volume
D. Molecules exert no force on each other between collisions
145. While ice at 0 °C is melting, heat is supplied steadily, but the temperature stays at 0 °C until all the ice has melted. The heat supplied is used to
A. increase the average kinetic energy of the molecules
B. make up for heat lost to the surroundings
C. increase the molecules' potential energy
D. push back the atmosphere as the ice expands
146. An ideal (Carnot) refrigerator keeps its inside at −23 °C while the room is at 27 °C. What is its coefficient of performance?
A. 0.17
B. 1.2
C. 5
D. 6
147. According to the second law of thermodynamics, in any natural (irreversible) process taking place in an isolated system, the total entropy of the system
A. decreases
B. stays the same
C. may increase or decrease
D. increases
148. A progressive wave is described by y = 0.02 sin(100πt − 0.5πx), with x and y in metres and t in seconds. What is the speed of the wave?
A. 25 m s⁻¹
B. 50 m s⁻¹
C. 200 m s⁻¹
D. 400 m s⁻¹
149. A violin and a flute play the same note at the same loudness, yet a listener can tell them apart. The characteristic that differs is the
A. pitch
B. intensity
C. quality (timbre)
D. fundamental frequency
150. The amplitude of a sound wave is doubled while its frequency stays the same. Its intensity becomes
A. √2 times as great
B. twice as great
C. four times as great
D. eight times as great
151. A spectacle lens has a power of −2.5 D. It is
A. a converging lens of focal length 40 cm
B. a diverging lens of focal length 40 cm
C. a diverging lens of focal length 2.5 m
D. a converging lens of focal length 2.5 m
152. Two thin lenses in contact, of focal lengths f₁ and f₂ and made of glasses of dispersive powers ω₁ and ω₂, form an achromatic combination, free of chromatic aberration, when
A. ω₁/f₁ + ω₂/f₂ = 0
B. ω₁f₁ + ω₂f₂ = 0
C. ω₁/f₂ + ω₂/f₁ = 0
D. ω₁ = ω₂
153. A diffraction grating gives its first-order maximum at 30° for light of wavelength 500 nm falling normally on it. How many lines per centimetre does the grating have?
A. 1 × 10⁴
B. 2 × 10⁴
C. 4 × 10⁴
D. 1 × 10⁶
154. Light can be polarised, but sound waves in air cannot. This shows that light waves are
A. longitudinal
B. mechanical waves needing a medium
C. stationary waves
D. transverse
155. Two telescopes are identical except that one has an objective lens of twice the diameter. Compared with the other, the larger telescope
A. has twice the magnifying power
B. can separate only stars twice as far apart in angle
C. can separate two stars half as far apart in angle
D. resolves equally well, as both magnify equally
156. A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω gives a full-scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. What resistance must be connected in series with it to make a voltmeter reading up to 10 V?
A. 99 Ω
B. 9.9 kΩ
C. 10 kΩ
D. 10.1 kΩ
157. The Hall effect in a current-carrying strip placed in a magnetic field is used to find
A. the strip's resistivity
B. the temperature coefficient of resistance of the material
C. the internal resistance of the cell driving the current
D. the sign of its charge carriers and their density
158. An ideal inductor with no resistance is connected to an AC supply. The average power it consumes over a complete cycle is zero because
A. no current flows through it at any instant
B. the current and voltage are 90° out of phase
C. its reactance is zero
D. the current and voltage stay exactly in phase
159. Soft iron is preferred to steel for the core of an electromagnet or a transformer because soft iron has
A. a high retentivity and a high coercivity
B. a relative permeability below 1
C. a wide hysteresis loop, so it stores more energy
D. a low coercivity and a narrow hysteresis loop
160. In a series LCR circuit, the quality factor (Q-factor) is a measure of
A. the sharpness of the resonance
B. the power lost in the resistor
C. the resonant frequency itself
D. the phase angle between current and voltage
161. A coil of resistance 30 Ω and inductive reactance 40 Ω is connected to a 200 V (rms) AC supply. What rms current flows?
A. 2.9 A
B. 4 A
C. 5 A
D. 6.7 A
162. A bridge rectifier converts alternating current into direct current using both halves of each cycle. How many diodes does it use?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
163. A proton moves with velocity v parallel to the lines of a uniform magnetic field B. The magnetic force on it is
A. evB, along its velocity
B. evB, at right angles to its velocity
C. zero
D. evB/2
164. The energy stored in the magnetic field of an inductor of self-inductance L carrying a steady current I is
A. ½LI
B. ½LI²
C. ½L²I
D. LI²
165. At every point on an equipotential surface, the electric field lines are
A. parallel to the surface
B. at 45° to the surface
C. perpendicular to the surface
D. absent, as the field is zero
166. Two equal positive point charges are fixed a short distance apart. At the point midway between them,
A. the field is zero and the potential is zero
B. the field is zero but the potential is not zero
C. the potential is zero but the field is not zero
D. neither the field nor the potential is zero
167. A 10 μF capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 100 V. How much energy does it store?
A. 5 × 10⁻⁴ J
B. 1 × 10⁻³ J
C. 0.05 J
D. 0.1 J
168. The energy stored per unit volume in an electric field of strength E in vacuum is
A. ½ε₀E²
B. ε₀E
C. ½ε₀²E
D. E²/(2ε₀)
169. Millikan's oil-drop experiment showed that
A. the electron's e/m is 1.76 × 10¹¹ C kg⁻¹
B. an atom's mass is concentrated in a tiny nucleus
C. electrons are diffracted like waves
D. charge comes only in whole multiples of e
170. Fusing light nuclei, as happens in the core of the Sun, requires temperatures of the order of 10⁷ K. Why is so high a temperature needed?
A. The nuclei must first be split into protons and neutrons by the heat
B. The nuclei must overcome their electric repulsion
C. The strong nuclear force acts only at high temperature
D. The reaction absorbs energy overall and must be supplied with it
171. The mass defect of a helium-4 nucleus is about 0.030 u. Taking 1 u as equivalent to 931 MeV, what is its binding energy per nucleon, approximately?
A. 3.5 MeV
B. 7.0 MeV
C. 14 MeV
D. 27.9 MeV
172. In photoelectric experiments on different metals, the stopping potential is plotted against the frequency of the incident light. For every metal the graph is a straight line with the same
A. slope, equal to h/e
B. intercept on the frequency axis
C. slope, equal to the work function
D. intercept, equal to h
173. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle sets a lower limit on the product of the uncertainties in a particle's
A. mass and charge
B. speed and kinetic energy
C. position and mass
D. position and momentum
174. A beam of X-rays passes between charged plates and then between the poles of a magnet without being deflected. This shows that X-rays
A. are a stream of fast electrons
B. are heavy charged particles
C. carry no electric charge
D. are sound waves of very high frequency
175. An X-ray tube is operated at 12.4 kV. What is the shortest wavelength in the X-rays it emits? (Take hc = 1240 eV nm.)
A. 0.01 nm
B. 0.1 nm
C. 1 nm
D. 10 nm
176. One becquerel (Bq), the SI unit of activity, equals
A. 3.7 × 10¹⁰ decays per second
B. one decay per second
C. one decay per minute
D. one joule of radiation absorbed per kilogram
177. Which of these radioisotopes is used as a source of gamma rays in radiotherapy machines that treat cancer?
A. Carbon-14
B. Uranium-238
C. Hydrogen-3 (tritium)
D. Cobalt-60
178. When a p-n junction diode is forward biased, the width of its depletion layer and its resistance
A. both decrease
B. both increase
C. the width decreases and the resistance increases
D. the width increases and the resistance decreases
179. Hubble's law states that distant galaxies are moving away from us with speeds that are
A. inversely proportional to their distance
B. the same for every galaxy
C. proportional to their distance from us
D. proportional to the square of their distance
180. The antiparticle of the electron is the positron. Compared with an electron, a positron has
A. the same mass and the same charge
B. the same mass and the opposite charge
C. about 1836 times the mass, like a proton
D. zero mass and zero charge
181. Hari stands facing east. He turns 90° clockwise, then turns through 180°, and finally turns 45° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
A. North-east
B. South-east
C. North-west
D. South-west
182. If the words Medicine, Medal, Meadow and Mediate are arranged in dictionary order, which word comes third?
A. Medal
B. Meadow
C. Medicine
D. Mediate
183. Statements: No fruit is a vegetable. All mangoes are fruits. Conclusions: I. No mango is a vegetable. II. Some vegetables are mangoes. If the statements are true, which conclusion must follow?
A. II alone follows
B. I alone follows
C. Both follow
D. Neither follows
184. Aarati, Bibek, Chhiring, Dawa, Elina and Firoj sit around a round table, facing the centre. Bibek sits opposite Aarati. Chhiring is immediately to Aarati's left, and Elina is immediately to Bibek's right. Dawa does not sit next to Bibek. Who sits immediately to Aarati's right?
A. Dawa
B. Firoj
C. Chhiring
D. Elina
185. A doctor sees five patients one after another: Gita, Hari, Indra, Jamuna and Kamal. Hari is seen immediately after Gita. Indra is seen before Gita but is not first. Kamal is seen last. Who is seen third?
A. Indra
B. Hari
C. Gita
D. Jamuna
186. To pass an examination, a student needs 40% of the maximum marks. She scores 178 marks and fails by 22 marks. What are the maximum marks?
A. 445
B. 550
C. 600
D. 500
187. If 12 pens cost Rs 180, how much will 20 pens cost at the same rate?
A. Rs 300
B. Rs 240
C. Rs 280
D. Rs 360
188. What is the compound interest on Rs 5,000 for 2 years at 10% per annum, compounded yearly?
A. Rs 1,000
B. Rs 1,050
C. Rs 1,100
D. Rs 1,025
189. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 3:40?
A. 150°
B. 120°
C. 130°
D. 140°
190. Walking at 4 km/h, Suman reaches school 10 minutes late; walking at 5 km/h, she arrives 5 minutes early. How far is the school from her home?
A. 4 km
B. 6 km
C. 7.5 km
D. 5 km
191. What comes after 13 in the list 31, 29, 23, 19, 17, 13, …?
A. 9
B. 7
C. 10
D. 11
192. In the series 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, …, what is the next term?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 47
D. 58
193. Which group of letters, written in order, fills the blanks in p q _ r p _ q r _ q q _ p q q _ ?
A. qqprr
B. qprqr
C. qqrpr
D. pqprr
194. Find the term that follows 1A, 4D, 9I, 16P, …
A. 25X
B. 25Y
C. 24X
D. 20T
195. One number in the series 6, 24, 60, 122, 210, 336 does not fit the pattern. Which is it?
A. 24
B. 60
C. 210
D. 122
196. This net is folded to make a cube with the letters on the outside. Which letter is on the face opposite P?
A. U
B. R
C. S
D. T
197. The first figure is related to the second in a certain way. Which option is related to the third figure in the same way?
198. A square sheet is folded top half down onto the bottom half, then right half over onto the left. The shaded corner is cut away. Which option shows the sheet opened out?
199. Two views of the same die are shown. Which number is on the face opposite 2?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
200. Which option shape can be traced along the lines of the figure, at any size but without turning or flipping it?
— End of the paper —
Answer sheet
CareerKyt practice sheet for CEE Mock 3 · not an MEC sheet
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