Print this on A4 — the booklet, then the answer sheet on the last page. Sit it at a desk for 3 hours with a black pen, filling one circle per question. Afterwards open careerkyt.com/cee/mock-test/, choose Mock 2 and Mark my sheet, and copy your circles across to see your score and every answer explained.
CareerKyt practice paper · not an MEC paper · careerkyt.com/cee/mock-test/
CEE Mock 2 · Paper I · Set A
MBBS, BDS, BSc Nursing, BSc Midwifery, BASLP, B Perfusion · Full marks 200 · Time 3 hours
1. In the Oparin–Haldane account of the origin of life, organic molecules in the early seas gathered into tiny droplets with a boundary round them, able to take in material and grow. What did Oparin call these droplets?
A. Microspheres
B. Liposomes
C. Mesosomes
D. Coacervates
2. Darwin could not explain how the variations that natural selection acts on arise and are passed on. Which addition made by Neo-Darwinism (the synthetic theory) filled this gap?
A. The inheritance of characters acquired by use and disuse
B. Mutation and recombination as sources of inherited variation
C. Overproduction of offspring leading to a struggle for existence
D. Survival of the fittest in a changing environment
3. The amino-acid sequence of the protein cytochrome c is identical in humans and chimpanzees but differs at many positions between humans and yeast. What kind of evidence of evolution is this, and what does it suggest?
A. Biochemical; humans are descended from modern chimpanzees
B. Embryological; humans and chimpanzees develop from similar embryos
C. Biochemical; humans and chimpanzees share a recent common ancestor
D. Paleontological; chimpanzee fossils are older than human fossils
4. Collar cells (choanocytes), whose beating flagella drive water through the body's canals and trap food particles, are characteristic of which phylum?
A. Cnidaria
B. Platyhelminthes
C. Porifera
D. Annelida
5. Which of these features, if found in an animal, marks it as a chordate rather than a non-chordate?
A. A solid, double nerve cord lying ventral to the gut
B. A single hollow nerve cord lying dorsal to the gut
C. A heart lying dorsal to the gut
D. Bilateral symmetry and a true coelom
6. A pond-water organism is a single cell. It swims by many short hair-like projections covering its surface, and it has two kinds of nucleus, a large macronucleus and a small micronucleus. In which protozoan class should it be placed?
A. Ciliata (Ciliophora)
B. Flagellata (Mastigophora)
C. Sarcodina (Rhizopoda)
D. Sporozoa
7. Most reptiles have a heart whose ventricle is only partly divided. Which reptile has a four-chambered heart, with the ventricle fully divided?
A. Cobra
B. Crocodile
C. House lizard
D. Tortoise
8. A single layer of thin, flat cells with central nuclei, well suited to diffusion and filtration, forms the
A. lining of the small intestine
B. outer layer of the skin
C. walls of blood capillaries
D. lining of the fallopian tubes
9. The lining of the mouth and oesophagus is stratified squamous epithelium, many cells thick, rather than a single layer of cells. How does this suit these sites?
A. Its many layers secrete the enzymes that begin the digestion of food
B. It resists abrasion, and worn surface cells are replaced from below
C. Its many layers can absorb digested food faster than a single layer
D. Cilia on its surface cells sweep food down towards the stomach
10. In areolar connective tissue, which cells secrete histamine, which widens blood vessels during inflammation, and heparin, which prevents blood clotting?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Macrophages (histiocytes)
C. Mast cells
D. Plasma cells
11. A muscle sample seen under the microscope has spindle-shaped cells, each with one central nucleus, and no cross-striations. From which of these was it most likely taken?
A. Biceps of the upper arm
B. Wall of the heart
C. Diaphragm
D. Wall of the intestine
12. When an infected female Anopheles mosquito bites a person, which stage of Plasmodium enters the person's blood with the mosquito's saliva?
A. Merozoite
B. Gametocyte
C. Sporozoite
D. Ookinete
13. In the earthworm Pheretima, the four pairs of 'hearts' that pump blood down into the ventral vessel lie in segments
A. 5, 6, 7 and 8
B. 7, 9, 12 and 13
C. 8, 10, 11 and 14
D. 10, 11, 12 and 13
14. In the frog's heart, deoxygenated blood returning from the body through the three venae cavae first enters the
A. right auricle
B. left auricle
C. truncus arteriosus
D. sinus venosus
15. In a person with untreated vivax malaria, attacks of chills and fever come back at regular intervals. What happens in the body at the start of each attack?
A. Many infected red cells burst together, releasing merozoites and toxins
B. Sporozoites from a new mosquito bite reach the liver and start multiplying
C. Gametocytes in the blood fuse in pairs to form zygotes
D. Infected liver cells burst and release sporozoites into the blood
16. The earthworm has no lungs or gills, yet it gets enough oxygen. How?
A. It diffuses through the moist skin into red blood corpuscles that are packed with haemoglobin
B. Air is drawn into tracheal tubes through spiracles on each segment
C. It diffuses through the moist skin into plasma that has haemoglobin dissolved in it
D. It is absorbed from air in swallowed soil through the intestine wall
17. Two adult frogs are collected in the breeding season. One has a swollen, rough pad at the base of the first finger of each forelimb and a pair of vocal sacs at the sides of its throat. What is this frog, and what is the pad for?
A. A female; the pads help her hold the eggs as they are laid
B. A male; the pads make sperm during the breeding season
C. A female; the pads secrete the jelly that coats the eggs
D. A male; the pads help it grip the female during amplexus
18. Which is the dental formula of an adult human with a full set of permanent teeth?
A. I 2/2, C 1/1, PM 0/0, M 2/2
B. I 2/2, C 1/1, PM 2/2, M 3/3
C. I 3/3, C 1/1, PM 4/4, M 3/3
D. I 2/1, C 0/0, PM 3/2, M 3/3
19. A person's blood contains 15 g of haemoglobin in every 100 mL, and each gram of haemoglobin can combine with 1.34 mL of oxygen when fully saturated. About how much oxygen does 100 mL of fully saturated blood carry bound to haemoglobin?
A. 1.34 mL
B. 11.2 mL
C. 20.1 mL
D. 201 mL
20. An Rh-negative woman's first baby was Rh-positive, and she was not given anti-D after the birth. Her second baby is also Rh-positive. Why is the second baby, not the first, at risk of having its red cells destroyed?
A. The second baby's own antibodies attack and destroy its mother's red cells
B. Rh antibodies reach a baby only in breast milk, after it is born
C. The first pregnancy weakens the placenta, letting her red cells into the baby
D. She made anti-Rh antibodies after the first birth, which can cross the placenta
21. In the human body, urea is made mainly in the
A. liver
B. kidneys
C. spleen
D. large intestine
22. Which of these is an effect of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A. An increase in heart rate
B. Constriction of the pupils
C. Widening of the bronchioles
D. Release of glucose from the liver into the blood
23. As an aeroplane comes down to land, a passenger feels pressure and pain in the ears, which ease after swallowing or yawning. Why does swallowing help?
A. It opens the Eustachian tubes, equalising pressure on the two sides of the eardrum
B. It shifts the ear ossicles, which squeeze excess fluid out of the cochlea
C. It tightens the muscles of the eardrum so that it cannot be pushed inward
D. It lets trapped air escape from the inner ear through the round and oval windows
24. In hilly areas where the diet lacks iodine, many people develop an enlarged thyroid gland (simple goitre). Why does the gland enlarge?
A. Iodine that cannot be used collects in the gland and makes it swell
B. Thyroxine that cannot be released builds up and swells the follicles
C. The gland makes extra thyroxine and grows to meet the body's demand
D. Low thyroxine lets TSH secretion rise, and TSH makes the gland grow
25. How many sperm are formed from 50 primary spermatocytes, and how many ova from 50 primary oocytes, if every cell completes meiosis normally?
A. 50 sperm and 50 ova
B. 100 sperm and 50 ova
C. 200 sperm and 50 ova
D. 200 sperm and 200 ova
26. After fats are digested in the small intestine, how are most of the absorbed products carried away from the villi?
A. As free fatty acids into blood capillaries, then the hepatic portal vein
B. As chylomicrons into the lacteals, and then in the lymph
C. As emulsified droplets carried back to the liver in the bile
D. As glycerol and fatty acids that stay in the villus cells until needed
27. The volume of air a healthy adult breathes in or out in one normal, quiet breath at rest (the tidal volume) is about
A. 150 mL
B. 500 mL
C. 1,200 mL
D. 4,800 mL
28. The first heart sound, 'lub', is heard at the start of ventricular systole. It is caused by
A. closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
B. closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
C. opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
D. contraction of the two atria
29. A healthy adult's kidneys form glomerular filtrate at about 125 mL per minute. Roughly how much filtrate is formed in a day, and what happens to most of it?
A. About 1.8 L, most of it passed as urine
B. About 18 L, nearly all of it reabsorbed
C. About 180 L, most of it passed as urine
D. About 180 L, nearly all of it reabsorbed
30. The small pit in the retina that gives the sharpest vision, where cones are packed most densely and rods are absent, is the
A. blind spot (optic disc)
B. ciliary body
C. fovea centralis
D. choroid
31. The alpha (α) cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone that raises blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of liver glycogen. This hormone is
A. insulin
B. glucagon
C. somatostatin
D. adrenaline
32. In the human testis, the male hormone testosterone is secreted by the
A. Leydig (interstitial) cells
B. Sertoli (sustentacular) cells
C. spermatogonia
D. epithelial cells of the epididymis
33. The Widal test, which looks for agglutinating antibodies in a patient's serum, is used to help diagnose
A. tuberculosis
B. cholera
C. hepatitis B
D. typhoid
34. Which of these is a feature of acquired (adaptive) immunity but not of innate immunity?
A. Skin and mucous membranes forming a barrier against the entry of microbes
B. Engulfing of microbes by neutrophils and macrophages
C. A faster, stronger response on a second exposure to the same antigen
D. Fever and inflammation at the site of an infection
35. Which of these vaccines is a toxoid, made from a bacterial toxin treated so that it is harmless but still produces immunity?
A. Oral polio vaccine
B. Tetanus vaccine
C. Rotavirus vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
36. A woman vaccinated against influenza one year catches influenza the next year. Which is the most likely explanation?
A. Influenza is caused by a bacterium that has grown resistant to the vaccine
B. The vaccine gave her only passive immunity, which lasts a few weeks at most
C. Influenza viruses destroy all memory cells, so no vaccine works a second time
D. Its surface antigens have changed, so her memory cells no longer recognise it
37. When a little curd (dahi) is added to warm milk, the milk sets into curd overnight. Which microbe does this, and how?
A. Saccharomyces, by fermenting lactose into ethanol
B. Acetobacter, by oxidising the milk sugar into acetic acid
C. Lactobacillus, by fermenting lactose into lactic acid
D. Penicillium, by digesting the milk protein casein
38. A patient who receives a kidney from an unrelated donor must take immunosuppressive drugs for life. Why?
A. To kill any bacteria that may have entered the body during the operation
B. To stop the new kidney making antibodies against the patient
C. To stop the patient's T cells attacking the kidney's foreign antigens
D. To speed the growth of blood vessels into the new kidney
39. Which of these animals found in Nepal is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List?
A. One-horned rhinoceros
B. Gharial
C. Snow leopard
D. Red panda
40. Fertiliser washed from fields into a pond makes algae multiply until the water turns green. A few weeks later many fish in the pond die. What is the most likely cause?
A. The algae release carbon monoxide, which poisons the fish
B. Bacteria decomposing dead algae use up the dissolved oxygen
C. Nitrate in the fertiliser poisons the fish directly
D. The thick layer of algae raises the water temperature beyond what fish survive
41. Sucrose gives no red precipitate when boiled with Benedict's reagent, although glucose and fructose, the two sugars it is built from, both do. This is because in sucrose:
A. fructose is a ketose sugar, and ketose sugars can never reduce the copper(II) ions in the reagent
B. the glucose unit is in the β form, which cannot react with the copper(II) ions in the reagent
C. the molecule is a polysaccharide, far too large to react with the copper(II) ions
D. the glycosidic bond joins the reducing carbons of both sugars, leaving no free carbonyl group
42. Which mineral element is held at the centre of the porphyrin ring in a chlorophyll molecule?
A. Iron
B. Manganese
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
43. Which statement follows the rules of binomial nomenclature for writing a plant's scientific name, such as that of sal?
A. The species epithet comes first, and the genus name is written after it in small letters
B. Both the genus name and the species epithet must always begin with capital letters
C. The genus comes first, capitalised; the species epithet follows in small letters
D. The name of the family is always written between the genus name and the species epithet
44. During the log phase, a bacterium divides by binary fission once every 30 minutes. Starting from a single cell, and with none dying, how many cells will there be after 3 hours?
A. 128
B. 64
C. 32
D. 12
45. Viruses are often placed on the borderline between living and non-living things mainly because they:
A. Contain both DNA and RNA together, but have no protein coat around them
B. Have their own ribosomes for making proteins, but no cell membrane at all
C. Divide by binary fission, as bacteria do, but are unable to respire
D. Multiply only inside host cells, yet can be crystallised outside them
46. A fungus has septate hyphae whose cells each hold two nuclei, clamp connections at the septa, and sexual spores borne in fours on the outside of club-shaped cells. It belongs to the:
A. Phycomycetes
B. Basidiomycetes
C. Ascomycetes
D. Deuteromycetes
47. A lichen whose thallus is shrubby or hair-like and branched, fixed to the bark or rock only at its base, as in Usnea, is described as:
A. Fruticose
B. Crustose
C. Foliose
D. Squamulose
48. A moss plant consists of a green leafy shoot with a stalked capsule growing from its tip. Which statement describes these two parts correctly?
A. The leafy shoot is the diploid sporophyte; the stalk and capsule are the haploid gametophyte
B. The leafy shoot is the haploid gametophyte; the stalk and capsule are the diploid sporophyte
C. Both are parts of one haploid plant, and only the spores in the capsule are diploid
D. Both are parts of one diploid plant, and only the gametes it forms are haploid
49. In Pinus, the needle-like foliage leaves are borne in clusters on:
A. Long shoots of unlimited growth
B. Underground rhizomes
C. Dwarf shoots of limited growth
D. The scales of the female cones
50. The fruit of mustard and radish, a long dry pod formed from two fused carpels that splits open from below by two valves, is a:
A. Legume
B. Berry
C. Siliqua
D. Caryopsis
51. Yarsagumba (Ophiocordyceps sinensis), collected from Nepal's high pastures, is:
A. The dried root of a small flowering herb of alpine meadows
B. A lichen that grows over bare rocks above the tree line
C. A moss that forms cushions in high-altitude bogs
D. A fungus that sprouts from a caterpillar it has killed
52. An orchid grows as an epiphyte on a mango branch: it gains support and a place in the light, takes no food from the tree, and the tree is neither helped nor harmed. The interaction is:
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Interspecific competition
53. Carbon dioxide and methane warm the lower atmosphere mainly because they:
A. Absorb most of the ultraviolet radiation arriving from the Sun
B. Absorb infrared radiation that the warmed Earth gives off
C. Trap the visible sunlight entering the atmosphere so that it cannot leave
D. Release heat as they react chemically with the oxygen in the air
54. In a forest food chain, the producers fix 50,000 kJ of energy in a year. By the ten per cent law, how much of it is expected to reach the secondary consumers?
A. 5 kJ
B. 50 kJ
C. 500 kJ
D. 5,000 kJ
55. Acid rain is caused mainly by which pollutants dissolving in rainwater?
A. Carbon monoxide and methane
B. Ammonia and water vapour
C. Ozone and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
D. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen
56. Which scientist added to the cell theory the principle that every cell arises from a pre-existing cell (omnis cellula e cellula)?
A. Rudolf Virchow
B. Robert Hooke
C. Matthias Schleiden
D. Robert Brown
57. Which of these structures is found in the cells of both a bacterium and a flowering plant?
A. Mitochondria
B. A nuclear envelope
C. Golgi bodies
D. Ribosomes
58. In cross-section, the axoneme of a eukaryotic cilium or flagellum shows its microtubules arranged as:
A. Nine triplets with none in the centre (9 + 0)
B. Nine singlets around one central doublet
C. Nine doublets around a central pair (9 + 2)
D. Eleven doublets arranged in a single ring
59. A chromosome whose centromere lies at its very tip, so that it has only one arm, is called:
A. Metacentric
B. Telocentric
C. Submetacentric
D. Acrocentric
60. Amitosis, or direct cell division, differs from mitosis in that:
A. The daughter nuclei receive half the parent's chromosome number
B. The nuclear envelope breaks down completely before the division
C. Spindle fibres pull the sister chromatids to opposite poles
D. The nucleus constricts into two without forming any spindle
61. Which codon signals the start of translation and also codes for the amino acid methionine?
A. AUG
B. UAG
C. UGA
D. UUU
62. A sample of double-stranded DNA contains 32% adenine. What percentage of its bases is cytosine?
A. 68%
B. 36%
C. 32%
D. 18%
63. A person of blood group AB has both the A and the B antigens on the red blood cells, not a blend of the two. The alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ are therefore:
A. Incompletely dominant
B. Codominant
C. Linked
D. Epistatic
64. In Drosophila, white eye (w) is recessive to red eye, and the gene lies on the X chromosome. A white-eyed female is crossed with a red-eyed male. The F₁ will be:
A. Red-eyed females and white-eyed males
B. All red-eyed, in both sexes
C. White-eyed females and red-eyed males
D. Half red-eyed and half white-eyed in each sex
65. The chemical most often used by plant breeders to double the chromosome number of cells, and so produce polyploids, is:
A. Indole-3-acetic acid
B. Ethylene
C. Colchicine
D. Kinetin
66. A single base deleted near the start of a gene's coding sequence usually harms the protein far more than a single base substitution does. This is because the deletion:
A. Always creates a stop codon at the place where the base was lost
B. Removes the promoter, so the gene is never transcribed
C. Changes just one amino acid, but always one in the active site
D. Shifts the reading frame, so every codon after it is changed
67. Vascular bundles with phloem on both the outer and the inner side of the xylem, called bicollateral bundles, are typical of the stem of:
A. Maize (Zea mays)
B. Sunflower (Helianthus)
C. Pumpkin (Cucurbita)
D. Mustard (Brassica)
68. A leaf section shows palisade cells only beneath the upper epidermis, loosely packed spongy cells towards the lower side, and more stomata on the lower surface. The leaf is:
A. Isobilateral, from a monocot
B. Isobilateral, from a dicot
C. Dorsiventral, from a monocot
D. Dorsiventral, from a dicot
69. Grass keeps growing after it has been grazed or mown because its leaves and internodes lengthen from the:
A. Apical meristem at the shoot tip
B. Intercalary meristem at their bases
C. Vascular cambium of the stem
D. Cork cambium just beneath the epidermis
70. Two touching cells: cell P has an osmotic pressure of 12 atm and a turgor pressure of 8 atm, and cell Q has an osmotic pressure of 9 atm and a turgor pressure of 3 atm. Which way does water move?
A. From P to Q, because Q has the higher DPD (6 atm against 4 atm)
B. From Q to P, because P has the higher osmotic pressure
C. From Q to P, because P has the higher DPD (20 atm against 12 atm)
D. Neither way, because both cells are fully turgid
71. The oxygen given off in photosynthesis comes from water that is split during the light reaction. This splitting is linked to:
A. Photosystem I
B. Photosystem II
C. RuBisCO in the stroma
D. ATP synthase in the thylakoid
72. A crop in a closed glasshouse photosynthesises at a steady rate on a bright, warm day. Raising the light intensity further has no effect, but adding CO₂ to the air increases the rate. Which conclusion is correct?
A. Light intensity was the limiting factor
B. CO₂ concentration was the limiting factor
C. Temperature was the limiting factor
D. The plants were already at their highest possible rate
73. When yeast respires anaerobically, the pyruvic acid formed in glycolysis is converted to:
A. Lactic acid
B. Acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide
C. Citric acid
D. Ethanol and carbon dioxide
74. A cabbage normally grows as a short rosette, but sprayed with a certain hormone its stem lengthens rapidly before flowering (bolting). The hormone is:
A. Cytokinin
B. Abscisic acid
C. Gibberellin
D. Ethylene
75. Stomata of most plants open in the morning light. Which sequence in the guard cells brings this about?
A. K⁺ ions leave, water potential rises, water flows out and the guard cells become flaccid
B. Sugar is turned into starch, water potential rises, and the cells swell
C. K⁺ ions enter, water potential falls, water flows in by osmosis and the cells swell
D. Abscisic acid builds up in the cells, and they swell with water
76. Transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant is called:
A. Geitonogamy
B. Autogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy
77. The two male gametes carried in the pollen tube of an angiosperm are formed by:
A. Meiosis of the generative cell
B. Mitosis of the generative cell
C. Mitosis of the vegetative (tube) cell
D. Meiosis of the microspore mother cell
78. Golden rice was genetically engineered to help against a dietary deficiency by making its grain produce:
A. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
B. Vitamin D, which the skin also makes in sunlight
C. The insect-killing Bt protein
D. β-carotene, which the body turns into vitamin A
79. In plant tissue culture, a callus is moved to a medium with a high ratio of cytokinin to auxin. It is most likely to form:
A. Roots
B. More unorganised callus, without organs
C. Pollen grains
D. Shoot buds
80. Which crop is commonly grown and then ploughed into the soil while still young and green, as a green manure?
A. Wheat (Triticum aestivum)
B. Maize (Zea mays)
C. Sesbania (dhaincha)
D. Mustard (Brassica)
81. How many oxygen atoms are present in 4.4 g of carbon dioxide? (C = 12, O = 16, Avogadro constant = 6.0 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)
A. 6.0 × 10²²
B. 1.2 × 10²³
C. 1.8 × 10²³
D. 2.4 × 10²³
82. Carbon forms two oxides, CO and CO₂. The masses of oxygen that combine with a fixed mass of carbon in them are in the simple ratio 1 : 2. Which law does this illustrate?
A. Law of multiple proportions
B. Law of definite proportions
C. Law of reciprocal proportions
D. Law of conservation of mass
83. In a ground-state nitrogen atom, the three 2p electrons occupy separate 2p orbitals with parallel spins instead of pairing up. Which rule does this follow?
A. Aufbau principle
B. Pauli's exclusion principle
C. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
D. Hund's rule
84. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å. What is the radius of its third orbit?
A. 0.059 Å
B. 1.59 Å
C. 2.12 Å
D. 4.77 Å
85. Which of these second-period elements has the highest first ionisation energy?
A. B
B. C
C. N
D. O
86. What is the hybridisation of the phosphorus atom in PCl₅?
A. sp³
B. sp³d²
C. dsp²
D. sp³d
87. The H–O–H angle in water (104.5°) is smaller than the H–N–H angle in ammonia (107°). What is the best explanation?
A. Oxygen carries two lone pairs; nitrogen carries one
B. Oxygen is less electronegative than nitrogen, so its bond pairs spread less
C. Water is hydrogen-bonded to its neighbours, which pulls its H atoms together
D. The oxygen atom is sp² hybridised while the nitrogen atom is sp³
88. Which of these reactions is a disproportionation?
A. Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu
B. 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂
C. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
D. 2Cu⁺ → Cu²⁺ + Cu
89. Under the same conditions, a gas diffuses at half the rate of methane (CH₄, M = 16 g mol⁻¹). What is the molar mass of the gas?
A. 4 g mol⁻¹
B. 8 g mol⁻¹
C. 32 g mol⁻¹
D. 64 g mol⁻¹
90. Anhydrous calcium chloride left open to humid air absorbs so much moisture that it dissolves in it and forms a solution. Such a substance is called
A. Deliquescent
B. Efflorescent
C. Hygroscopic
D. Amorphous
91. For the equilibrium H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), the total pressure is doubled at constant temperature by compressing the mixture. What happens to the position of equilibrium?
A. It shifts towards HI
B. It does not shift
C. It shifts towards H₂ and I₂
D. It shifts towards HI only if a catalyst is present
92. 5.85 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 500 g of water. What is the molality of the solution? (Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
A. 0.05 mol kg⁻¹
B. 0.1 mol kg⁻¹
C. 0.2 mol kg⁻¹
D. 11.7 mol kg⁻¹
93. The solubility of calcium fluoride in water at 25 °C is 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹. What is its solubility product?
A. 8.0 × 10⁻¹²
B. 1.6 × 10⁻¹¹
C. 3.2 × 10⁻¹¹
D. 4.0 × 10⁻⁸
94. What is the unit of the rate constant of a zero-order reaction?
A. mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
B. s⁻¹
C. L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
D. L² mol⁻² s⁻¹
95. Which of these is a secondary cell, one that can be recharged by passing a current through it in the reverse direction?
A. Leclanché dry cell
B. Mercury cell
C. Hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell
D. Lead–acid accumulator
96. A reaction is endothermic (ΔH > 0) and its entropy increases (ΔS > 0). Assuming ΔH and ΔS do not change with temperature, when is it spontaneous?
A. Only below a certain temperature
B. At all temperatures
C. At no temperature
D. Only above a certain temperature
97. Carbon-14 and nitrogen-14 have the same mass number but different atomic numbers (6 and 7). Such nuclides are called
A. Isotopes
B. Isobars
C. Isotones
D. Isomers
98. Which isotope of hydrogen is radioactive?
A. Protium
B. Tritium
C. Deuterium
D. Ortho-hydrogen
99. Copper turnings are dropped into concentrated nitric acid. Which gas is given off?
A. NO₂
B. H₂
C. NO
D. N₂O
100. What is the shape of the ozone molecule, O₃?
A. Bent, with an angle of about 117°
B. Linear, with an angle of 180°
C. An equilateral triangle of O atoms
D. Bent, with an angle of about 90°
101. Which method is used to concentrate sulphide ores such as galena and zinc blende?
A. Magnetic separation
B. Leaching with NaOH
C. Calcination
D. Froth flotation
102. Galvanised iron does not rust even where its zinc coating is scratched. Why?
A. Zinc forms an alloy with iron that cannot oxidise
B. Zinc is less reactive than iron and blocks oxygen
C. Zinc is oxidised in preference to iron
D. Zinc oxide flows into the scratch and seals it
103. Lithium has the highest first ionisation energy of the alkali metals, yet it is the strongest reducing agent among them in aqueous solution. Why?
A. Lithium atoms are the largest of the group and lose electrons easily
B. The small Li⁺ ion has the largest hydration energy
C. Lithium compounds are the most ionic in the whole group
D. Lithium has the lowest melting point of the alkali metals
104. Cyanide is a strong-field ligand. How many unpaired electrons does the iron ion in [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ have?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
105. What is the formula of white vitriol?
A. CuSO₄·5H₂O
B. ZnSO₄·7H₂O
C. FeSO₄·7H₂O
D. MgSO₄·7H₂O
106. Which metal ion lies at the centre of the vitamin B₁₂ molecule?
A. Iron
B. Magnesium
C. Zinc
D. Cobalt
107. In the complex [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂, what are the oxidation state and the coordination number of cobalt?
A. +2 and 6
B. +3 and 5
C. +3 and 6
D. +3 and 8
108. What is the IUPAC name of CH₃–CO–CH₂–CH₂–OH?
A. 4-Hydroxybutan-2-one
B. 1-Hydroxybutan-3-one
C. 3-Oxobutan-1-ol
D. 4-Hydroxypentan-2-one
109. How many structural isomers have the molecular formula C₆H₁₄?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9
110. When a covalent bond breaks so that each atom keeps one of the two shared electrons, the fragments formed are
A. Carbocations and carbanions
B. Free radicals
C. A cation and an anion
D. Two nucleophiles
111. Which of these is the strongest acid?
A. CH₃COOH
B. BrCH₂COOH
C. ClCH₂COOH
D. FCH₂COOH
112. The cetane number of a fuel measures its quality for use in
A. Petrol engines
B. Kerosene lamps and stoves
C. Diesel engines
D. Gas turbines burning LPG
113. Ethyne is passed into warm dilute sulphuric acid containing mercury(II) sulphate. What is the organic product?
A. Ethanol
B. Ethanoic acid
C. Ethane-1,2-diol
D. Ethanal
114. By Hückel's rule, a planar, cyclic, fully conjugated molecule is aromatic if the number of π electrons it contains is (n = 0, 1, 2 …)
A. 4n
B. 4n + 1
C. 4n + 2
D. 2n + 1
115. An optically active alkyl halide undergoes substitution by a pure SN2 mechanism at its chiral carbon. What happens to the configuration at that carbon?
A. It is inverted
B. It is retained
C. It becomes a racemic mixture
D. It is lost because the carbon becomes planar
116. Chlorobenzene is much less reactive than chloroethane towards nucleophilic substitution by aqueous NaOH. What is the main reason?
A. Chlorobenzene does not mix with the aqueous NaOH solution
B. The ring pushes electrons onto chlorine, making it a better leaving group
C. The C–Cl bond is partly double through resonance
D. The phenyl cation formed in the first step is too stable to react
117. In the fermentation of cane sugar to ethanol, which yeast enzyme converts glucose and fructose into ethanol and carbon dioxide?
A. Invertase
B. Zymase
C. Diastase
D. Maltase
118. Phenol is shaken with bromine water, and a white precipitate forms at once. What is the precipitate?
A. 3-Bromophenol
B. A mixture of 2- and 4-bromophenol
C. 1,3,5-Tribromobenzene
D. 2,4,6-Tribromophenol
119. Methoxybenzene (anisole) is heated with concentrated hydroiodic acid. What are the products?
A. Phenol and iodomethane
B. Iodobenzene and methanol
C. Iodobenzene and iodomethane
D. Benzene and methanol
120. Which of these carbonyl compounds is the most reactive towards nucleophilic addition?
A. Ethanal
B. Methanal
C. Propanone
D. Benzaldehyde
121. Ethanoic acid is heated with one mole of chlorine in the presence of a little red phosphorus. What is the main organic product?
A. Ethanoyl chloride
B. Chloroethane
C. Chloroethanoic acid
D. Trichloroethanoic acid
122. Butanamide, CH₃CH₂CH₂CONH₂, is warmed with bromine and sodium hydroxide solution. What is the organic product?
A. Propan-1-amine
B. Butan-1-amine
C. Sodium butanoate
D. Butanenitrile
123. Nitrobenzene is nitrated further with a hot mixture of fuming nitric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid. What is the main product?
A. 1,2-Dinitrobenzene
B. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene
C. 2-Nitrophenol
D. 1,3-Dinitrobenzene
124. Ethylmagnesium bromide in ether is poured onto solid carbon dioxide, and the mixture is then acidified. Which compound results?
A. CH₃COOH
B. CH₃CH₂COOH
C. CH₃CH₂CH₂OH
D. CH₃CH₂CHO
125. In Ostwald's process for nitric acid, ammonia is oxidised by air over which catalyst?
A. Finely divided iron with molybdenum
B. Vanadium(V) oxide pellets
C. Finely divided nickel
D. Platinum–rhodium gauze
126. A small amount of gypsum is ground into cement clinker. What is its purpose?
A. To make the cement harden faster
B. To give the cement its grey colour
C. To slow down the initial setting
D. To act as the main binding material
127. What is the percentage of nitrogen by mass in urea, CO(NH₂)₂? (H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16)
A. 23.3%
B. 35.0%
C. 46.7%
D. 48.3%
128. In the brown ring test, a solution is mixed with freshly prepared iron(II) sulphate and concentrated sulphuric acid is poured carefully down the side of the tube. A brown ring where the layers meet shows the presence of
A. Sulphate ions
B. Chloride ions
C. Nitrate ions
D. Carbonate ions
129. Which of these compounds gives a yellow precipitate of iodoform when warmed with iodine and sodium hydroxide?
A. Methanol
B. Propan-2-ol
C. Propan-1-ol
D. Pentan-3-one
130. On a paper chromatogram, the solvent front has moved 8.0 cm from the starting line and a dye spot has moved 3.2 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?
A. 0.40
B. 0.60
C. 2.5
D. 4.8
131. A student records the length of a wire as 0.05020 m. How many significant figures does this reading have?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
132. Two stones are thrown from level ground with the same speed, one at 30° and the other at 60° to the horizontal. Ignoring air resistance, which statement is correct?
A. They land at the same distance and rise to the same height
B. The 30° stone lands farther and stays longer in the air
C. The 60° stone lands farther, and both are in the air for the same time
D. They land at the same distance, but the 60° stone rises higher
133. A rifle of mass 4 kg fires a bullet of mass 20 g with a muzzle speed of 400 m s⁻¹. With what speed does the rifle recoil?
A. 0.2 m s⁻¹
B. 2 m s⁻¹
C. 20 m s⁻¹
D. 2000 m s⁻¹
134. A block rests on a rough plank. The plank is tilted slowly, and the block just begins to slide when the plank makes an angle θ with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between block and plank is
A. sin θ
B. cos θ
C. tan θ
D. cot θ
135. What is the SI unit of angular momentum?
A. kg m s⁻¹
B. kg m² s⁻²
C. kg m²
D. kg m² s⁻¹
136. A soap bubble of radius r is blown from a solution of surface tension T. The excess of the pressure inside the bubble over the pressure outside is
A. T/r
B. 2T/r
C. 4T/r
D. 8T/r
137. The acceleration due to gravity at the Earth's surface is g. What is it at a height above the surface equal to the Earth's radius?
A. g/4
B. g/√2
C. g/2
D. zero
138. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm and a period of 0.2π s. What is its maximum acceleration?
A. 0.5 m s⁻²
B. 5 m s⁻²
C. 50 m s⁻²
D. 500 m s⁻²
139. A wire is stretched within its elastic limit. The elastic potential energy stored per unit volume of the wire is
A. ½ × stress × strain
B. stress × strain
C. ½ × stress ÷ strain
D. 2 × stress × strain
140. Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at the same point, and their resultant is 5 N. What is the angle between the two forces?
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
141. Two bodies X and Y are each in thermal equilibrium with a third body Z, so X and Y are in thermal equilibrium with each other. This statement, the zeroth law of thermodynamics, is the basis of the concept of
A. temperature
B. internal energy
C. heat
D. entropy
142. Hydrogen and oxygen gases are at the same temperature. Compared with an oxygen molecule, a hydrogen molecule has (molar masses: H₂ = 2 g mol⁻¹, O₂ = 32 g mol⁻¹)
A. the same average kinetic energy and sixteen times the rms speed
B. the same rms speed and the same average kinetic energy
C. four times the average kinetic energy and four times the rms speed
D. the same average kinetic energy and four times the rms speed
143. A steel rod is 2 m long at 20 °C. By how much does its length increase when it is heated to 70 °C? (Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 1.2 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹)
A. 0.6 mm
B. 1.2 mm
C. 1.68 mm
D. 3.6 mm
144. A platinum resistance thermometer measures temperature by making use of the change, with temperature, of a platinum wire's
A. electrical resistance
B. length
C. brightness when it glows
D. density
145. An ideal gas expands isothermally and does 500 J of work on its surroundings. How much heat does it absorb during the expansion?
A. zero
B. 250 J
C. 500 J
D. 1000 J
146. For one mole of an ideal gas, the molar heat capacities at constant pressure (Cₚ) and at constant volume (Cᵥ) are related by
A. Cₚ + Cᵥ = R
B. Cₚ/Cᵥ = R
C. Cᵥ − Cₚ = R
D. Cₚ − Cᵥ = R
147. Heat flows through a slab of area A and thickness x at the rate Q/t = KA(θ₁ − θ₂)/x. What is the SI unit of the thermal conductivity K?
A. W m⁻¹ K⁻¹
B. W m K⁻¹
C. W m⁻² K⁻¹
D. J m⁻¹ K⁻¹
148. In which of these does sound travel fastest, all being at the same temperature?
A. Air
B. Hydrogen gas
C. Steel
D. Water
149. A stretched string has a fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. Its tension is made four times as large while its length and its mass stay the same. What is its new fundamental frequency?
A. 100 Hz
B. 400 Hz
C. 800 Hz
D. 3200 Hz
150. In a stationary wave of wavelength λ, the distance between two neighbouring nodes is
A. λ/4
B. λ/2
C. λ
D. 2λ
151. A coin lies at the bottom of a tank filled with water to a depth of 1.2 m. Viewed from directly above, how deep does the coin appear to be? (Refractive index of water = 4/3)
A. 0.3 m
B. 0.9 m
C. 1.2 m
D. 1.6 m
152. For a spherical mirror of small aperture, the focal length f and the radius of curvature R are related by
A. f = R/2
B. f = R
C. f = 2R
D. f = R/4
153. Two light sources can produce a steady interference pattern only if they are coherent. This means they must
A. be of equal intensity
B. keep a constant phase difference
C. be placed very close together
D. be separate lamps of the same colour
154. Monochromatic light passes through a single narrow slit onto a distant screen. If the slit is made narrower, the central bright band of the diffraction pattern
A. becomes wider
B. becomes narrower
C. stays the same width
D. splits into two bands
155. Newton took the compressions and rarefactions of a sound wave in air to be isothermal and got v = √(P/ρ), about 16% too low. Laplace treated them as adiabatic. Laplace's formula is (γ = Cₚ/Cᵥ)
A. √(P/(γρ))
B. γ√(P/ρ)
C. √(γρ/P)
D. √(γP/ρ)
156. The resistivity of a metal wire depends on
A. its length
B. its cross-sectional area
C. the potential difference applied across it
D. its material and temperature
157. A uniform wire of resistance R is stretched so that its length doubles, its volume staying the same. Its new resistance is
A. R/2
B. R
C. 2R
D. 4R
158. A cell of emf 12 V and internal resistance 1 Ω is connected across a 5 Ω resistor. What is the potential difference across the cell's terminals?
A. 2 V
B. 10 V
C. 12 V
D. 14 V
159. In a Wheatstone bridge, resistors P and Q are joined in series in one branch, and R and S in series in the other; the two branches are connected in parallel across a cell. A galvanometer joins the P–Q junction to the R–S junction. It reads zero when
A. P/Q = R/S
B. P/Q = S/R
C. P + Q = R + S
D. P + R = Q + S
160. A current passes through a junction of two different metals, and the junction cools. If the current is reversed, the junction
A. cools more quickly
B. warms up
C. stays at the same temperature
D. cools at the same rate
161. The peak value of a sinusoidal alternating voltage is V₀. Its root-mean-square (rms) value is
A. V₀/2
B. √2 V₀
C. V₀/√2
D. 2V₀/π
162. Two long straight parallel wires carry currents in the same direction. The wires
A. attract each other
B. repel each other
C. exert no force on each other
D. exert forces only if the currents are unequal
163. The magnetic flux through each turn of a 200-turn coil falls steadily from 4 × 10⁻³ Wb to zero in 0.02 s. What is the average emf induced in the coil?
A. 0.016 V
B. 0.2 V
C. 0.8 V
D. 40 V
164. A bar magnet is dropped, north pole first, towards a horizontal closed copper ring. As the magnet approaches, the face of the ring nearer to it becomes
A. a south pole, which attracts the magnet
B. neither, because copper is not magnetic
C. a north pole, which repels the magnet
D. neither, as no current flows until the magnet touches it
165. A hollow, empty metal sphere carries a charge Q. The electric field at points inside the hollow is
A. zero
B. the same as just outside the surface
C. greatest at the centre
D. uniform and directed outwards
166. A parallel-plate capacitor stays connected to a battery while the separation between its plates is doubled. What happens to the charge on its plates?
A. It doubles
B. It halves
C. It stays the same
D. It becomes four times as large
167. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance of 30 cm from a point charge of 2 μC in air? (1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻²)
A. 1.8 × 10⁴ N C⁻¹
B. 6 × 10⁴ N C⁻¹
C. 2 × 10⁵ N C⁻¹
D. 2 × 10⁷ N C⁻¹
168. The electric potential at a distance r from a point charge q in vacuum is
A. q/(4πε₀r²)
B. qr/(4πε₀)
C. q²/(4πε₀r)
D. q/(4πε₀r)
169. The binding energy per nucleon is greatest, at about 8.8 MeV, for nuclei close to
A. hydrogen-2
B. helium-4
C. iron-56
D. uranium-238
170. The radius of a nucleus is R = R₀A^(1/3), where A is its mass number. What is the ratio of the radius of a nucleus with A = 64 to that of a nucleus with A = 8?
A. 2
B. 2.8
C. 4
D. 8
171. An electron beam passes undeflected through a region where a uniform electric field of 3 × 10⁴ V m⁻¹ and a uniform magnetic field of 0.02 T act at right angles to each other and to the beam. What is the electrons' speed?
A. 6.7 × 10⁻⁷ m s⁻¹
B. 6 × 10² m s⁻¹
C. 1.5 × 10⁴ m s⁻¹
D. 1.5 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹
172. A photon of light of wavelength λ carries a momentum of (h is Planck's constant, c the speed of light)
A. hλ
B. hc/λ
C. h/(λc)
D. h/λ
173. Bohr's postulate for the hydrogen atom allows the electron to move only in orbits in which its angular momentum is (n = 1, 2, 3, …)
A. nh/2π
B. nh
C. n²h/2π
D. 2πnh
174. Electrons are accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. If V is made four times as large, their de Broglie wavelength becomes
A. one quarter as long
B. half as long
C. twice as long
D. unchanged
175. X-rays of wavelength λ are reflected from planes of atoms a distance d apart in a crystal. By Bragg's law, a strong reflection occurs at a glancing angle θ given by
A. d sin θ = nλ
B. 2d cos θ = nλ
C. d = nλ sin θ
D. 2d sin θ = nλ
176. A radioactive nucleus emits one alpha particle and then two beta-minus particles. Compared with the original nucleus, the final nucleus has
A. an atomic number smaller by 2 and the same mass number
B. an atomic number smaller by 4 and a mass number smaller by 2
C. the same atomic number and a mass number smaller by 4
D. the same atomic number and the same mass number
177. In which kind of solid do the valence band and the conduction band overlap, leaving no forbidden energy gap between them?
A. An intrinsic semiconductor
B. A metal
C. An insulator
D. A p-type semiconductor
178. The output of an AND gate is fed into a NOT gate. If the AND gate's inputs are 1 and 0, what is the final output, and what single gate does the combination behave as?
A. 1, a NAND gate
B. 0, a NAND gate
C. 1, a NOR gate
D. 0, a NOR gate
179. The energy of the electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom is −13.6/n² eV. How much energy is needed to ionise a hydrogen atom that is in its first excited state?
A. 3.4 eV
B. 6.8 eV
C. 10.2 eV
D. 13.6 eV
180. Which of these particles is a lepton?
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Muon
D. Pion
181. Complete the analogy. Eye : Ophthalmologist :: Skin : ?
A. Cardiologist
B. Nephrologist
C. Dermatologist
D. Neurologist
182. Which word does not belong with the other three? Femur, Tibia, Biceps, Radius
A. Biceps
B. Femur
C. Tibia
D. Radius
183. In a row of students, Sita is 12th from the left end and 19th from the right end. How many students are in the row?
A. 31
B. 30
C. 29
D. 32
184. If ROSE is written as 6821 and CHAIR as 73456 in a code, how is SEARCH written in that code?
A. 214763
B. 241673
C. 214637
D. 214673
185. In a code, P × Q means P is the father of Q, P + Q means P is the wife of Q, and P − Q means P is the sister of Q. If K + L × M − N, how is K related to N?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister
D. Grandmother
186. A shopkeeper buys a bag for Rs 800 and sells it for Rs 920. What is his profit per cent?
A. 13%
B. 15%
C. 12%
D. 20%
187. Rs 3,600 is shared among Ram, Shyam and Hari in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. How much does Hari receive?
A. Rs 1,200
B. Rs 1,440
C. Rs 1,800
D. Rs 1,600
188. In a year that is not a leap year, 1 January falls on a Monday. On which day of the week does 1 March of that year fall?
A. Thursday
B. Friday
C. Wednesday
D. Tuesday
189. Anil can do a piece of work in 12 days and Binod can do it in 18 days. Working together, in how many days will they finish it?
A. 15 days
B. 6 days
C. 7.2 days
D. 7.5 days
190. A 30-litre mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 7 : 3. How many litres of water must be added to make the ratio 3 : 2?
A. 4 litres
B. 5 litres
C. 6 litres
D. 9 litres
191. Which number should replace the question mark? 7, 12, 22, 37, 57, ?
A. 82
B. 77
C. 80
D. 87
192. Which letter continues the series Z, X, U, Q, L, …?
A. G
B. E
C. F
D. H
193. Each pair is formed by the same rule as the others. Which pair comes after AZ, BY, CX, DW?
A. EU
B. FV
C. EW
D. EV
194. In each column of the grid, the bottom number is made from the two numbers above it by the same rule. Which number replaces the question mark?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 3
D. 25
195. The series 1, 2, 6, 21, 88, … is built by one rule that changes slightly at each step. What is the sixth term?
A. 445
B. 440
C. 448
D. 453
196. The figure is turned through 90° clockwise. Which option shows how it then looks?
197. The dashed line marks the surface of still water beneath the drawing. Which option is the drawing's reflection in that water?
198. The boxes change by a fixed rule from left to right. Which option belongs in the box with the question mark?
199. The figure is a grid of equal small squares. Counting squares of every size, how many does it contain?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 20
200. Three of these figures are the same shape turned to different positions. Which figure is not?
— End of the paper —
Answer sheet
CareerKyt practice sheet for CEE Mock 2 · not an MEC sheet
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